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Question 1:

Why are public frameworks, such as 1TIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?

A. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented

B. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt

C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do

D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

The design of IT services requires the effective and efficient use of “the four Ps”.

What are these four Ps?

A. People, process, partners, performance

B. Performance, process, products, plans

C. People, process, products, partners

D. People, products, plans, partners

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Which of the following BEST describes service strategies value to the business?

A. Allows higher volumes of successful change

B. Reduction in unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outages

C. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages

D. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their customers successful

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

A process owner has been identified with an “I” in a RACI matrix.

Which one of the following would be expected of them?

A. Be accountable for the outcome of an activity

B. Perform an activity

C. Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activity

D. Manage an activity

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?

A. Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages

B. Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services

C. Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the service designs that are produced

D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?

A. Informational, scheduled, normal

B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency

C. Informational, warning, exception

D. Warning, reactive, proactive

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?

A. Employers

B. Stakeholders

C. Regulators

D. Accreditors

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

The BEST description of an incident is: A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service

B. An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service

C. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned

D. Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted or not

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?

A. Continual service improvement

B. Change management

C. Service level management

D. Availability management

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?

A. The value of a service

B. Governance

C. Total cost of ownership (TCO)

D. Key performance indicators (KPIs)

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which of these statements about resources and capabilities is CORRECT?

A. Resources are types of service asset and capabilities are not

B. Resources and capabilities are both types of service asset

C. Capabilities are types of service asset and resources are not

D. Neither capabilities nor resources are types of service asset

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

What should a service always deliver to customers?

A. Applications

B. Infrastructure

C. Value

D. Resources

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Availability management is directly responsible for the availability of which of the following?

A. IT services and components

B. IT services and business processes

C. Components and business processes

D. IT services, components and business processes

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which of the following are reasons why ITIL is successful?

1.

ITIL is vendor neutral

2.

It does not prescribe actions

3.

ITIL represents best practice

A. All of the above

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which one of the following includes four stages called Plan, Do, Check and Act?

A. The Deming Cycle

B. The continual service improvement approach

C. The seven-step improvement process

D. The service lifecycle

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Which of the following is NOT included in a Snort rule header?

A. protocol

B. action

C. source IP address

D. packet byte offset

E. source port

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Which files are read by the lsdev command? (Please specify THREE answers)

A. /proc/dma

B. /proc/filesystems

C. /proc/interrupts

D. /proc/ioports

E. /proc/swaps

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 3:

The following data is some of the output produced by a program. Which program produced this output?

strftime (” Thu”, 1024, “%a”, 0xb7f64380) =4 fwrite (“Thu”, 3, 1, 0xb7f614e0) =1 fputc (\’ \’, 0xb7f614e0) =32 strftime (” Feb”, 1024, ” %b”, 0xb7f64380) =4 fwrite (“Feb”, 3, 1, 0xb7f614e0) =1 fputc (\’ \’, 0xb7f614e0) =32 fwrite (“19”, 2, 1, 0xb7f614e0) =1

A. lsof

B. ltrace

C. nm

D. strace

E. time

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

DNSSEC is used for?

A. Encrypted DNS queries between nameservers.

B. Cryptographic authentication of DNS zones.

C. Secondary DNS queries for local zones.

D. Defining a secure DNS section.

E. Querying a secure DNS section.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which network service or protocol is used by sendmail for RBLs (Realtime Blackhole Lists)?

A. RBLP

B. SMTP

C. FTP

D. HTTP

E. DNS

Correct Answer: E


Question 6:

What is the correct format for an ftpusers file entry?

A. Use only one username on each line.

B. Add a colon after each username.

C. Add a semicolon after each username.

D. Add ALLOW after each username.

E. Add DENY after each username.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

A system monitoring service checks the availability of a database server on port 5432 of destination.example.com. The problem with this is that the password will be sent in clear text. When using an SSH tunnel to solve the problem, which command should be used?

A. ssh -1 5432:127.0.0.1:5432 destination.example. com

B. ssh -L 5432:destination.example.com:5432 127.0.0.1

C. ssh -L 5432:127.0.0.1:5432 destination.example.com

D. ssh -x destination.example.com:5432

E. ssh -R 5432:127.0.0.1:5432 destination.example.com

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

If the command arp -f is run, which file will be read by default?

A. /etc/hosts

B. /etc/ethers

C. /etc/arp.conf

D. /etc/networks

E. /var/cache/arp

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

What command is used to add a route to the 192.168.4.0/24 network via 192.168.0.2?

A. route add – network 192.168.4.0 netmask 255.255.255.0 gw 192.168.0.2

B. route add – net 192.168.4.0/24 gw 192.168.0.2

C. route add – network 192.168.4.0/24 192.168.0.2

D. route add – net 192.168.4.0 netmask 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2

E. route add – net 192.168.4.0 netmask 255.255.255.0 gw 192.168.0.2

Correct Answer: E


Question 10:

What could be a reason for invoking vsftpd from (x) inetd?

A. It\’s not a good idea, because (x) inetd is not secure

B. Running vsftpd in standalone mode is only possible as root, which could be a security risk

C. vsftpd cannot be started in standalone mode

D. (x) inetd has more access control capabilities

E. (x) inetd is needed to run vsftpd in a chroot jail

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

How can a user\’s default shell be checked, by querying an NIS server?

A. ypquery [email protected]

B. ypgrep user example.com

C. ypmatch -d example.com user passwd

D. ypcat -d example.com user

E. ypq @example.com user shell

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

What command can be used to check the Samba configuration file?

A. testconfig

B. testsmbconfig

C. smbtestcfg

D. smbtestparm

E. testparm

Correct Answer: E


Question 13:

Which of the following are Samba security modes or levels? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A. ads

B. data

C. ldap

D. network

E. share

Correct Answer: AE


Question 14:

If there is no access directive, what is the default setting for OpenLDAP?

A. access to * by anonymous read by * none

B. access to * by anonymous read by * read

C. access to * by anonymous auth by * read

D. access to * by anonymous write by * read

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which configuration parameter on a Postfix server modifies only the sender address and not the recipient address?

A. alias_maps

B. alias_rewrite_maps

C. sender_canonical_maps

D. sender_rewrite_maps

Correct Answer: C