[PDF and VCE] Free 2v0-621 VCE and PDF, Exam Materials Instant Download

How to pass Hotest 2v0-621 vce dumps exam easily with less time? We provides the most valid 2v0-621 braindumps to boost your success rate in VCP6-DCV Jun 22,2022 Hotest 2v0-621 vce dumps VMware Certified Professional 6 – Data Center Virtualization exam. If you are one of the successful candidates with We 2v0-621 pdf, do not hesitate to share your reviews on our VCP6-DCV materials.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 2v0-621 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the 2v0-621 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 2v0-621 dumps.The following questions and answers are from the latest 2v0-621 free dumps. It will help you understand the validity of the latest 2v0-621 dumps.

Question 1:

When atempang to log in with the vSphere Web Client, users have reported the error: Incorrect Username/Password The administrator has confgured the Platorm Services Controller Idenaty Source as: Type. Acave Directory as an LDAP Server Domain: vmware.com Alias: VMWARE Default Domain: Yes Which two statements would explain why users cannot login to the vSphere Web Client? (Choose two.)

A. Users are typing the password incorrectly.

B. Users are in a forest that has 1-way trust.

C. Users are in a forest that has 2-way trust.

D. Users are logging into vCenter Server with incorrect permissions.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 2:

An administrator runs the command esxcli storage core device list and sees the following output:

mpx.vmhba1:C0:T0:L0 Display Name: RAID 5 (mpx.vmhba1:C0:T0:L0) Has Setable Display Name: false SizE. 40960 Device Type: Direct-Access Mulapath Plugin: NMP Devfs Path: /vmfs/devices/disks/mpx.vmhba1:C0:T0:L0 Status: of Is

Local: true

What can be determined by this output?

A. The device is a being used for vFlash Read Cache.

B. The device is in a Permanent Device Loss (PDL) state.

C. The device is a local Solid State Device (SSD).

D. The device is in an All Paths Down (APD) state.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Which two statements are true regarding Storage Mulapathing Plug-Ins? (Choose two.)

A. The default Path Selecaon Policy is VMW_PSP_MRU for iSCSI or FC devices.

B. The default Path Selecaon Policy is VMW_PSP_FIXED for iSCSI or FC devices.

C. VMW_PSP_MRU is typically selected for ALUA arrays by default.

D. VMW_PSP_FIXED is typically selected for ALUA arrays by default.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 4:

Which fle determines the locaaon of the installaaon script during a scripted upgrade?

A. boot.cfg

B. ks.cfg

C. script.cfg

D. upgrade.cfg

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which two vCenter Server services are migrated automaacally as part of an upgrade from a Distributed vCenter Server running 5.x? (Choose two.)

A. vCenter Single Sign-on Service

B. vSphere Web Client

C. vSphere Inventory Service

D. Storage Policy Based Management

Correct Answer: BC


Question 6:

When imporang an exisang SSL cerafcate into vSphere Replicaaon Server, which fle format is required?

A. PKCS#12

B. DER

C. PEM

D. PKCS#7

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

An administrator decides to change the root password for an ESXi 6.x host to comply with the company\’s security policies. What are two ways that this can be accomplished? (Choose two.)

A. Use the Direct Console User Interface to change the password.

B. Use the passwd command in the ESXi Shell.

C. Use the password command in the ESXi Shell.

D. Use the vSphere client to update local users.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 8:

Afer successfully adding a new ESXi 6.x host to vCenter Server, an administrator sees it as Not Responding in the vSphere Web Client interface a few minutes later. If the issue is caused by a network frewall blocking trafc, which port must be opened to correct this specifc problem?

A. 443 (TCP)

B. 443 (UDP)

C. 902 (TCP)

D. 902 (UDP)

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

An administrator uses the df -h command and noaces that an NFS datastore is reporang a capacity of 0 Bytes. What condiaon would cause this to occur?

A. The NFS server on which the datastore resides is down.

B. The datastore was mounted as Read/Write.

C. The datastore was mounted as Read-Only.

D. The datastore was created with NFS version 4.1.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

An administrator is atempang to enable Legacy Fault Tolerance (FT) on a virtual machine and observes the following in the vSphere Web Client:

Fault Tolerance has not been licensed on host .

What is the minimum licensed ediaon that supports this confguraaon?

A. Standard

B. Enterprise

C. Enterprise Plus

D. Essenaals Plus

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

How does vSphere High Availability calculate the memory slot size of a virtual machine?

A. Virtual machine memory reservaaon overhead of largest virtual machine

B. Virtual machine memory reservaaon – overhead of largest virtual machine

C. Virtual machine memory reservaaon overhead of smallest virtual machine

D. Virtual machine memory reservaaon – overhead of smallest virtual machine

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Refer to the Exhibit.

The Exhibit shows the status of vmhba32 and vmhba33 as Unbound. What is a likely reason for this status?

A. The host bus adapter is not associated with a vmknic.

B. The Dynamic Target Discovery was not confgured.

C. The Staac Target Discovery was not confgured.

D. The host bus adapter is not associated with a vmnic.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Refer to the Exhibit.

An administrator receives an error on a vSphere cluster as shown in the Exhibit. Based on the exhibit, which three confguraaon changes can resolve the error? (Choose three.)

A. Change the Admission Control policy for the cluster.

B. Adjust CPU and Memory reservaaons of the virtual machines.

C. Increase the amount of failover resources in the cluster.

D. Reconfgure the ESXi host cluster for High Availability.

E. Disable Virtual Machine Monitoring.

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 14:

An administrator is confguring an idenaty source for Single Sign-On. The administrator will use the machine that Single Sign-On is running on, but does not want all users on the machine to be visible to SSO. Which Idenaty Source meets this requirement?

A. Acave Directory (Integrated Windows Authenacaaon)

B. Acave Directory as an LDAP Service

C. OpenLDAP

D. LocalOS

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which two statements are true regarding upgrading ESXi 6.x hosts using a USB fash drive? (Choose two.)

A. The ks.cfg fle must be available to the ESXi 6.x host during bootup on a TFTP server.

B. The USB fash drive must be formated using Fat32.

C. A paraaon table must be manually created on the USB fash device.

D. The USB fash drive must be mounted from a Windows device with sysconfg installed.

Correct Answer: BC


[Latest Version] Easily Pass C2070-993 Exam With Updated C2070-993 Preparation Materials

Do not worry about that if you are stuck in the IBM Analytics Cloud Content Services Newest C2070-993 free download exam difficulties, We will assist you all your way through the IBM Analytics Cloud Content Services Newest C2070-993 QAs IBM Case Manager V5.2.1 Solution Designer exam with the most update IBM Analytics Cloud Content Services C2070-993 pdf. We exam C2070-993 braindumps are the most comprehensive material, covering every key knowledge of Jun 21,2022 Latest C2070-993 pdf dumps IBM Case Manager V5.2.1 Solution Designer exam.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest C2070-993 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the C2070-993 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our C2070-993 dumps.Free sample questions of C2070-993 free dumps are provided here. All the following questions are from the latest real C2070-993 dumps.

Question 1:

A case worker would like to send an instant announcement to other case workers in the IBM Case Manager environment. How can this be done?

A. By adding a comment to the case.

B. By using the external email system.

C. By using the IBM Sametime integrated feature.

D. By creating a case with the announcement as a property.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Business Analyst John Smith has a user ID and valid password configured with IBM Case Manager but has not been assigned to a project area. Which statement is true?

A. John Smith cannot login to Case Manager Builder.

B. John Smith can only work in the default project area.

C. John Smith can login to Case Manager Builder, but cannot create a solution.

D. John Smith can login to Case Manager Builder, but cannot deploy a solution.

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

There are two recommended methods used to copy a solution : Case Manager Builder and what other tool?

A. IBM Content Engine API

B. IBM FileNet Workplace XT

C. IBM FileNet Enterprise Manager

D. IBM Case Manager Administration Client

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

When creating a new solution from a template, how long should the new solution name be?

A. Any length

B. Less than 58 characters

C. Less than 999 characters

D. Greater than 8 characters

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

A solution designer would like to use a FileNet eform to add a case in ICM. The form template has already been created in the eforms designer. Which step(s) need to be performed to make this form available to add a case?

A. Check in the form template of type Document class using WorkplaceXT.

B. Check in the form template of type ITXFormTemplate class using WorkplaceXT.

C. Check in the form template of type Document class using WorkplaceXT; Configure the Case Form Widget in the Add Case Form page with this version series ID of the checked in form template.

D. Check in the form template of type ITXFormTemplate class using WorkplaceXT; Configure the Case Form Widget in the Add Case Form page with this version series ID of the checked in form template.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Which application is used to modify the Case Monitor data stream objects when exposing a case property to a Cognos Real-time Monitoring dashboard?

A. Case Manager Builder

B. Process Configuration Console

C. Cognos Real-time Monitoring Dashboard

D. Cognos Real-time Monitoring Workbench

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

How do workflow and case properties get synchronized within a task?

A. A post condition needs to be added to sync the data fields.

B. A separate ICM system task completes the synchronization.

C. ICM automatically adds a post condition to sync the data fields.

D. They are automatically synchronized because they are named the same.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Which of the following is NOT part of iLog JRules?

A. Rule Project

B. Rules Team Server

C. Ruleset Components

D. Ruleset Archive Components

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

What are the three default spaces installed with IBM Case Manager?

A. Command space, Work space, and Search space.

B. Solution space, Work Pages space, and Case Step space.

C. Solution space, Case Pages space, and Step Pages space.

D. Solution Pages space, Pages space, and Case Step space.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

When designing a task, what is the purpose for creating a system step?

A. To configure within Process Designer the ability for a custom UI Step.

B. To configure within Case Builder the ability to call a Web Service Step.

C. To configure within Case Builder the ability to call a CE_Operation Step.

D. To configure within Process Designer the ability to call a CE_Operation Step.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

What is the web-based Content Analytics application that helps with rapid insights detection?

A. Cognos RTM

B. Case Manager Client

C. Text Miner application

D. Case Management Administration Client

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

What, at a minimum, must a solution template contain?

A. A solution definition file.

B. A URL to the object store.

C. A Process Engine configuration file.

D. A Pages subfolder containing the pages used for deployment.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Which tool is used to configure IBM FileNet Case Analyzer engine?

A. Workplace XT

B. Case Manager Builder

C. Process Task Manager

D. IBM Case Manager Administration Client

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

When working with Real Time Monitor, which statement regarding dimensions is true?

A. Dimensions represent the rows in a table.

B. Dimensions are ranked orders of related data.

C. Dimensions indicate how long a data element is.

D. Dimensions use cubes to represent data in a query.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which tool is used to deploy solutions in a production environment?

A. Workplace XT

B. Case Manager Builder

C. FileNet Enterprise Manager

D. IBM Case Manager Administration Client

Correct Answer: D


[Latest Version] Free E20-007 PDF Download with 100% Pass Guarantee

Attention please! Here is the shortcut to pass your Jun 20,2022 Hotest E20-007 QAs exam! Get yourself well prepared for the New Release Hotest E20-007 practice Data Science and Big Data Analytics exam is really a hard job. But don’t worry! We We, provides the most update E20-007 practice tests. With We latest E20-007 real exam questions, you’ll pass the New Release Latest E20-007 pdf dumps Data Science and Big Data Analytics exam in an easy way

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest E20-007 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the E20-007 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our E20-007 dumps.We have sample questions for E20-007 free dumps. You can download and check the real questions of updated E20-007 dumps.

Question 1:

What is required in a presentation for business analysts?

A. Budgetary considerations and requests

B. Operational process changes

C. Detailed statistical explanation of the applicable modeling theory

D. The presentation author\’s credentials

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which process in text analysis can be used to reduce dimensionality?

A. Stemming

B. Parsing

C. Digitizing

D. Sorting

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

You have been assigned to run a logistic regression model for each of 100 countries, and all the data is currently stored in a PostgreSQL database. Which tool/library would you use to produce these models with the least effort?

A. MADlib

B. Mahout

C. RStudio

D. HBase

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Your colleague, who is new to Hadoop, approaches you with a question. They want to know how best to access their data. This colleague has previously worked extensively with SQL and databases.

Which query interface would you recommend?

A. Hive

B. Pig

C. Howl

D. HBase

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

When would you use GROUP BY ROLLUP clause in your OLAP query?

A. where all subtotals and grand totals are to be included in the output

B. where only the subtotals are to be included in the output

C. where only the grand totals are to be included in the output

D. where only specific subtotals and grand totals for a combination of variables are to be included in the output

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

A data scientist is given an R data frame (i.e., empdata) with the following columns:

Age

Salary

Occupation

Education Gender

The scientist wants to examine only the Salary and Occupation columns for ages greater than `40\’. Which command extracts the appropriate rows and columns from the data frame?

A. empdata[empdata$Age > 40, c(“Salary”,”Occupation”)]

B. empdata[c(“Salary”,”Occupation”), empdata$Age > 40]

C. empdata[Age > 40, (“Salary”,”Occupation”)]

D. empdata[, c(“Salary”,”Occupation”)]$Age > 40

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

You ran a linear regression, and the final output is seen in the exhibit.

Based only on the information in the exhibit and an acceptable confidence level of 95%, how would you interpret the interaction of variable D with the dependent variable?

A. In this model, Variable D is not significantly interacting with the dependent variable

B. For every 1 unit increase in variable D, holding all other variables constant, we can expect the dependent variable to increase by 10.23 units

C. For every 1 unit increase in variable D, holding all other variables constant, we can expect the dependent variable to be multiplied by 10.23 units

D. Variable D is more significant than variables A, B, and C.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit.

You have scored your Naive bayesian classifier model on a hold out test data for cross validation and determined the way the samples scored and tabulated them as shown in the exhibit. What are the the False Positive Rate (FPR) and the False Negative Rate (FNR) of the model?

A. FPR = 15/262 FNR = 26/288

B. FPR = 26/288 FNR = 15/262

C. FPR = 262/15 FNR = 288/26

D. FPR = 288/26 FNR = 262/15

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which data asset is an example of semi-structured data?

A. XML data file

B. Database table

C. Webserver log

D. News article

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

When is a Wilcoxon Rank-Sum test used?

A. When an assumption about the distribution of the populations cannot be made

B. When the data can be easily sorted

C. When the populations represent the sums of other values

D. When the data cannot be easily sorted

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Consider the example of an analysis for fraud detection on credit card usage. You will need to ensure higher-risk transactions that may indicate fraudulent credit card activity are retained in your data for analysis, and not dropped as outliers during pre-processing. What will be your approach for loading data into the analytical sandbox for this analysis?

A. ELT

B. ETL

C. EDW

D. OLTP

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

In the exhibit, the x-axis represents the derived probability of a borrower defaulting on a loan. Also in the exhibit, the pink represents borrowers that are known to have not defaulted on their loan, and the blue represents borrowers that are known to have defaulted on their loan.

Which analytical method could produce the probabilities needed to build this exhibit?

A. Logistic Regression

B. Linear Regression

C. Discriminant Analysis

D. Association Rules

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Which chart type is the most effective way to show trends over time?

A. Line Chart

B. Bar Chart

C. Stacked Bar Chart

D. Histogram

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

What does R code nv <- v[v < 1000] do?

A. Selects the values in vector v that are less than 1000 and assigns them to the vector nv

B. Sets nv to TRUE or FALSE depending on whether all elements of vector v are less than

C. Removes elements of vector v less than 1000 and assigns the elements >= 1000 to nv

D. Selects values of vector v less than 1000, modifies v, and makes a copy to nv

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

What is an appropriate data visualization to use in a presentation for a project sponsor?

A. Bar chart

B. Pie chart

C. Box and Whisker plot

D. Density plot

Correct Answer: A


[Newest Version] Easily Pass 102-400 Exam with Updated Real 102-400 Exam Materials

Attention please! Here is the shortcut to pass your Hotest 102-400 vce dumps exam! Get yourself well prepared for the LPIC-1 Jun 19,2022 Hotest 102-400 practice LPI Level 1 Exam 102, Junior Level Linux Certification,Part 2 of 2 exam is really a hard job. But don’t worry! We We, provides the most update 102-400 braindumps. With We latest 102-400 dumps, you’ll pass the LPIC-1 Latest 102-400 vce LPI Level 1 Exam 102, Junior Level Linux Certification,Part 2 of 2 exam in an easy way

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 102-400 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the 102-400 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 102-400 dumps.Although questions are from 102-400 free dumps, the validity and accuracy of the 102-400 dumps are absolutely guaranteed.

Question 1:

When the command echo $ outputs 1, which of the following statements is true?

A. It is the process ID of the echo command.

B. It is the process ID of the current shell.

C. It is the exit value of the command executed immediately before echo.

D. It is the exit value of the echo command.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which of the following commands puts the output of the command date into the shell variable mydate?

A. mydate=”$(date)”

B. mydate=”exec date”

C. mydate=”$((date))”

D. mydate=”date”

E. mydate=”${date}”

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which of the following files, when existing, affect the behavior of the Bash shell? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A. ~/.bashconf

B. ~/.bashrc

C. ~/.bashdefaults

D. ~/.bash_etc

E. ~/.bash_profile

Correct Answer: BE


Question 4:

What output will the following command produce?

seq 1 5 20

A. 1

B. 1

C. 1

D. 2

E. 5

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which of the following words is used to restrict the records that are returned from a SELECT SQL query based on a supplied criteria for the values in the records?

A. CASE

B. FROM

C. WHERE

D. IF

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Which of the following commands lists all defined variables and functions within Bash?

A. env

B. set

C. env -a

D. echo $ENV

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

What is the purpose of the file /etc/profile?

A. It contains the welcome message that is displayed after login.

B. It contains security profiles defining which users are allowed to log in.

C. It contains environment variables that are set when a user logs in.

D. It contains default application profiles for users that run an application for the first time.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

The X11 configuration file xorg.conf is grouped into sections.

How is the content of the section SectionName associated with that section?

A. It is placed in curly brackets as in Section SectionName { … }.

B. It is placed between a line containing Section “SectionName” and a line containing EndSection.

C. It is placed between the tags

and

D. It is placed after the row [SectionName].

E. It is placed after an initial unindented Section “SectionName” and must be indented by exactly one tab character.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

How is a display manager started?

A. It is started by a user using the command startx.

B. It is started like any other system service by the init system.

C. It is started by inetd when a remote hosts connects to the X11 port.

D. It is started automatically when a X11 user logs in to the system console.

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which of the following are tasks handled by a display manager like XDM or KDM? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A. Start and prepare the desktop environment for the user.

B. Configure additional devices like new monitors or projectors when they are attached.

C. Handle the login of a user.

D. Lock the screen when the user was inactive for a configurable amount of time.

E. Create an X11 configuration file for the current graphic devices and monitors.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 11:

Which of the following steps prevents a user from obtaining an interactive login session?

A. Run the command chsh -s /bin/false with the user name.

B. Set the UID for the user to 0.

C. Remove the user from the group staff.

D. Add the user to /etc/noaccess.

E. Create a .nologin file in the user\’s home directory.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

In case neither cron.allow nor cron.deny exist in /etc/, which of the following is true?

A. Without additional configuration, no users may have user specific crontabs.

B. Without additional configuration, all users may have user specific crontabs.

C. The cron daemon will refuse to start and report missing files in the system\’s logfile.

D. When a user creates a user specific crontab the system administrator must approve it explicitly.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Which file contains the date of the last change of a user\’s password?

A. /etc/gshadow

B. /etc/passwd

C. /etc/pwdlog

D. /etc/shadow

E. /var/log/shadow

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Each entry in a crontab must end with what character?

A. Tab

B. Space

C. Backslash

D. Newline

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

What is NOT contained in the locale setting of the operating system?

A. currency symbol

B. language

C. timezone

D. thousands separator

Correct Answer: C


Pass hpe0-j68 Exam By Practicing Latest hpe0-j68 VCE and PDF Braindumps

Tens of thousands of competitors, pages of hard questions and unsatisfied exam preparation situations… Do not worried about all those annoying things! We, help you with your HPE ASE Newest hpe0-j68 vce HPE Storage Solutions exam. We will assist you clear the Jun 15,2022 Hotest hpe0-j68 vce dumps exam with HPE ASE hpe0-j68 pdf. We hpe0-j68 new questions are the most comprehensive ones.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest hpe0-j68 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the hpe0-j68 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our hpe0-j68 dumps.Free sample questions of hpe0-j68 free dumps are provided here. All the following questions are from the latest real hpe0-j68 dumps.

Question 1:

Drag and Drop

Match the data access type in a SAN fabric to the correct description.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 2:

Which functionality available in an HPE 3 Par StoreServ 8400 system that is not available in an HPE 3par Storesrve 7200?

A. Data at Rest Encryption

B. Persistent Checksum end-to-end data integrity (correct)

C. Adaptive optimization and dynamic Optimization

D. Online import license

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Which storage principle would benefits of customer who has several departments in their organization with different storage needs?

A. Autonomic Management

B. Federated storage

C. Scale out storage

D. Multi-tenancy

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

A customer with restricted budget has an existing HPE 3PAR storeserver 8200 using 10kfast class and near line drives because of the implementation of new application .the workload has shifted to be read intensive therefore ,they want to increase the read I/O performance What should they add to their environment?

A. A tier with 15k fast class 600 GB drive for new CPG, configure AO policy to advantage of new resources

B. Two 400 GB SSD drives and enable adaptive flash cache (page 173) eed to check

C. A tier with 15k fast class drive and implement thin provisioned deduplicated virtual volumes

D. A tier of SSD and implement thin provisioned virtual volume

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which management interface uses four basic commands (Create ,read, update ad delete )to enable administrators to define ad radically simply management processes?

A. Rest API

B. WMI

C. SMI-S

D. WEBEM

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

What can move data directly from a snapshot to backup storage independent of backup server software?

A. SSMC

B. Virtual Lock

C. CLI

D. Express Protect

Correct Answer: D

The Express Protect feature offers data protection by facilitating Express Protect of snapshots from HPE 3PAR StoreServ to HPE StoreOnce.


Question 7:

What is the benefits of HPE synergy?(Select 2)

A. It can present block storage services from HPE 3par as part of the resource pool

B. It support up to 3 HPE store Virtual VSA nodes for storage RAID

C. It can use HPE 3PAR file persona for objet storage

D. It can compose and reclaim DAS storage

E. It support HPE blade system C-Class Flex Fabrics Interconnect module (need to check)

Correct Answer: AD


Question 8:

A large organization is experiencing exponential data growth of object storage due to recent mergers and acquisition .They need an on-premise solution to optimize cost at petabyte scale Which components should you recommend for a software-defined solution ?(select two)

A. HPE Appolo 4510 server

B. HPE Complete -Scalability RING

C. HPE Synergy 660 Gen10 compute modules

D. HPE complete -CTERA

E. HPE 3PAR Storeserv 9450c

Correct Answer: AB


Question 9:

A customer migrate their infrastructure from a 3rd party storage to a Nimble environment. During an architecture workshop, you discuss VMvision with the customer and the system engineer. Which statement is correct when implementing performance monitoring using VMVision?

A. Nibmle service processor collects relevant per VM performance data and send them using SSL port 443 to VMvision

B. VMvision is an agentless integration into infosight and needs only the Vcenter server appliance credentials to connect. (page 112)

C. VMware vSphere storage API\’s array integration (VAAI)has to be configured to combine storage and VM performance metrics

D. SNMP trap service has to be configured to send traps to infosight and integrate performance data using VMvision.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Which SAN topology offers the highest centralized data access performance?

A. Meshed

B. Cascaded

C. Core-Edge

D. Ring

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

A customer need to implement a new SAN fabric for their growing environment .The new SAN should provide a high performance and port-efficient network with many-to-many connectivity .Because of changing requirement and the possible acquisition of another company in the near future. The customer cannot predit the I/O traffic pattern within the SAN .The customer also concerned about availability. Which type of SAN topology should you recommend?

A. Core-edge fabric

B. Single switch fabric

C. Cascaded fabric

D. Meshed fabric

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Which storage tool in the storage assessment foundry provide data protection analysis?

A. Ninja protected (318)

B. NinjaCrawler

C. Ninja Thin

D. Ninja Stars

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

A customer is a cloud service provider with infrastructure powered by HPE 3PAR Storeserv 9000.The customer is concern about their ability to ensure the quality of service and protect their tenants from unpredictable bursts of I/O from other tenants. What should you recommended to your customer ?

A. Use priority optimization to enable service level for workloads

B. Use virtual domain to automatically set multi-tenant policies

C. Use dynamic optimization to automatically manage quality of service

D. Use adaptive optimization to optimize service level automatically

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

A customer has an existing configuration consisting of first class and nearline SAS drive in an 8000 SFF enclosure. They add two SFF 8000enclosure that are fully populated with nearline drives to an existing HPE 3Par storeserv 8400 array. What should the customer do to optimize their storage configuration?

A. Defrag the CPG and run align drive on their system

B. Run tunesys and on the array (275)

C. Enable space reclamation

D. Create new CPG for the newly installed drivers

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which storage protocol is supported by virtual connect Flex-10?

A. FCoE

B. FC

C. ISCSI

D. FCIP

Correct Answer: C


[PDF and VCE] Free nse4 VCE and PDF, Exam Materials Instant Download

Attention please! Here is the shortcut to pass your Newest nse4 pdf dumps exam! Get yourself well prepared for the Security Expert Jun 14,2022 Hotest nse4 exam questions Fortinet Network Security Expert 4 Written Exam (400) exam is really a hard job. But don’t worry! We We, provides the most update nse4 actual tests. With We latest nse4 exam questions, you’ll pass the Security Expert Hotest nse4 vce Fortinet Network Security Expert 4 Written Exam (400) exam in an easy way

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest nse4 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the nse4 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our nse4 dumps.Although questions are from nse4 free dumps, the validity and accuracy of the nse4 dumps are absolutely guaranteed.

Question 1:

A FortiGate devices is configured with four VDOMs: \’root\’ and \’vdom1\’ are in NAT/route mode; \’vdom2\’ and \’vdom2\’ are in transparent mode. The management VDOM is \’root\’. Which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. An inter-VDOM link between \’root\’ and \’vdom1\’ can be created.

B. An inter-VDOM link between \’vdom1\’ and vdom2\’ can created.

C. An inter-VDOM link between \’vdom2\’ and vdom3\’ can created.

D. Inter-VDOM link links must be manually configured for FortiGuard traffic.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 2:

Which UTM feature sends a UDP query to FortiGuard servers each time FortiGate scans a packet (unless the response is locally cached)?

A. Antivirus

B. VPN

C. IPS

D. Web Filtering

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

If you have lost your password for the “admin” account on your FortiGate, how should you reset it?

A. Log in with another administrator account that has “super_admin” profile permissions, then reset the password for the “admin” account.

B. Reboot the FortiGate. Via the local console, during the boot loader, use the menu to format the flash disk and reinstall the firmware. Then you can log in with the default password.

C. Power off the FortiGate. After several seconds, restart it. Via the local console, within 30 seconds after booting has completed, log in as “maintainer” and enter the CLI commands to set the password for the “admin” account.

D. Reboot the FortiGate. Via the local console, during the boot loader, use the menu to log in as “maintainer” and enter the CLI commands to set the password for the “admin” account.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Which statements are true regarding IPv6 anycast addresses? (Choose two.)

A. Multiple interfaces can share the same anycast address.

B. They are allocated from the multicast address space.

C. Different nodes cannot share the same anycast address.

D. An anycast packet is routed to the nearest interface.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 5:

Which statements are correct regarding an IPv6 over IPv4 IPsec configuration? (Choose two.)

A. The source quick mode selector must be an IPv4 address.

B. The destination quick mode selector must be an IPv6 address.

C. The Local Gateway IP must be an IPv4 address.

D. The remote gateway IP must be an IPv6 address.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 6:

Which of the following IPsec configuration modes can be used when the FortiGate is running in NAT mode?

A. Policy-based VPN only

B. Both policy-based and route-based VPN.

C. Route-based VPN only.

D. IPSec VPNs are not supported when the FortiGate is running in NAT mode.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which IP packets can be hardware-accelerated by a NP6 processor? (Choose two.)

A. Fragmented packets.

B. Multicast packet.

C. SCTP packet.

D. GRE packet.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 8:

A FortiGate is configured with the 1.1.1.1/24 address on the wan2 interface and HTTPS Administrative Access, using the default tcp port, is enabled for that interface. Given the SSL VPN settings in the exhibit.

Which of the following SSL VPN login portal URLs are valid? (Choose two.)

A. http://1.1.1.1:443/Training

B. https://1.1.1.1:443/STUDENTS

C. https://1.1.1.1/login

D. https://1.1.1.1/

Correct Answer: BD


Question 9:

Which statement is correct concerning an IPsec VPN with the remote gateway setting configured as \’Dynamic DNS\’?

A. The FortiGate will accept IPsec VPN connection from any IP address.

B. The FQDN resolution of the local FortiGate IP address where the VPN is terminated must be provided by a dynamic DNS provider.

C. The FortiGate will Accept IPsec VPN connections only from IP addresses included on a dynamic DNS access list.

D. The remote gateway IP address can change dynamically.

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Which of the following statements are true regarding the web filtering modes? (Choose two.)

A. Proxy based mode allows for customizable block pages to display when sites are prevented.

B. Proxy based mode requires more resources than flow-based.

C. Flow based mode offers more settings under the advanced configuration section of the GUI.

D. Proxy based mode offers higher throughput than flow-based mode.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 11:

Which are valid replies from a RADIUS server to an ACCESS-REQUEST packet from a FortiGate? (Choose two.)

A. ACCESS-CHALLENGE

B. ACCESS-RESTRICT

C. ACCESS-PENDING

D. ACCESS-REJECT

Correct Answer: AD


Question 12:

Which of the following statements are true about IPsec VPNs? (Choose three.)

A. IPsec increases overhead and bandwidth.

B. IPsec operates at the layer 2 of the OSI model.

C. End-user\’s network applications must be properly pre-configured to send traffic across the IPsec VPN.

D. IPsec protects upper layer protocols.

E. IPsec operates at the layer 3 of the OSI model.

Correct Answer: ADE


Question 13:

In FortiOS session table output, what are the two possible `proto_state\’ values for a UDP session? (Choose two.)

A. 00

B. 11

C. 01

D. 05

Correct Answer: AC


Question 14:

In FortiOS session table output, what is the correct `proto_state\’ number for an established, non-proxied TCP connection?

A. 00

B. 11

C. 01

D. 05

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

What is not true of configuring disclaimers on the FortiGate?

A. Disclaimers can be used in conjunction with captive portal.

B. Disclaimers appear before users authenticate.

C. Disclaimers can be bypassed through security exemption lists.

D. Disclaimers must be accepted in order to continue to the authentication login or originally intended destination.

Correct Answer: C


New Released Free Update of IIA-CIA-PART3 Exam Practice Materials

How to pass Jun 12,2022 Hotest IIA-CIA-PART3 exam questions exam easily with less time? We provides the most valid IIA-CIA-PART3 new questions to boost your success rate in Certified Internal Hotest IIA-CIA-PART3 pdf dumps Certified Internal Auditor – Part 3 study guide with online review exam. If you are one of the successful candidates with We latest IIA-CIA-PART3 dumps, do not hesitate to share your reviews on our Certified Internal materials.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest IIA-CIA-PART3 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the IIA-CIA-PART3 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our IIA-CIA-PART3 dumps.Although questions are from IIA-CIA-PART3 free dumps, the validity and accuracy of the IIA-CIA-PART3 dumps are absolutely guaranteed.

Question 1:

Which of the following is the most significant reason that domestic governments and international organizations seek to eliminate cartels?

A. The increased sales price reduces the amount of corporate tax revenues payable to the government.

B. True competition keeps prices as low as possible, thus increasing efficiency in the marketplace.

C. Small businesses cannot survive or grow without government protection.

D. The economic stability of developing countries depends on a global free market.

Correct Answer: B

A cartel is an organization of sellers (e.g., the oil cartel OPEC) who undertake joint action to maximize members\’ profits by controlling the supply, and therefore the price, of their product. Under the laws of many nations, such collusive conduct is illegal when engaged in by firms subject to those laws. The reason is that, as a result of the monopolistic and anticompetitive practices of cartels, supply is lower, prices are high, competition is restrained, and the relevant industry is less efficient. Accordingly, governmental and international organizations seek to protect consumers and the health of the domestic and global economy through anti-cartel efforts.


Question 2:

When a multinational firm decides to sell its products abroad, one of the risks the firm faces is that the government of the foreign market charges the firm with dumping. Dumping occurs when

A. The same product sells at different prices in different countries.

B. A firm charges less than the cost to make the product so as to enter or win a market.

C. Lower quality versions of the product are sold abroad so as to be affordable.

D. Transfer prices are set artificially high so as to minimize tax payments.

Correct Answer: B

Dumping is an unfair trade practice that violates international agreements. It occurs when a firmcharges a price (1) lower than that in its home market or (2) less than the cost to make the product. Dumping may be done to penetrate a market or as a result of export subsidies.


Question 3:

A global firm

A. Has achieved economies of scale in the firm\’s domestic market.

B. Plans, operates, and coordinates business globally.

C. Relies on indirect export.

D. Tends to rely more on one product market.

Correct Answer: B

According to Kotler, “Global firms plan, operate, and coordinate their activities on a worldwide basis.” Thus, a global firm secures cost or product differentiation advantages not available to domestic firms.


Question 4:

A firm wishing to become global must consider how many national markets to enter. A firm should enter fewer national markets when

A. Communication adaptation costs are low.

B. The product need not be adapted.

C. Entry costs are low.

D. The first countries chosen are heavily populated and have high incomes.

Correct Answer: D

According to Ayal and Zif, the following are factors indicating that few national markets should be entered:

(1)

entry costs are high;

(2)

market control costs are high;

(3)

product adaptation costs are high;

(4)

communication adaptation costs are high;

(5)

the first countries selected have large populations, high incomes, and high income growth;

(6)

a dominant firm can erect high entry barriers.


Question 5:

The least risky method of entering a market in a foreign country is by

A. Indirect exports.

B. Licensing.

C. Direct exports.

D. Direct investments.

Correct Answer: A

An indirect export strategy operates through intermediaries, such as home-country merchants who buy and resell the product, home-country agents who negotiate transactions with foreign buyers fora commission, cooperatives that represent groups of sellers, and export-management firms that receive fees for administering the firm\’s export efforts. Indirect export requires lower investment than direct export and is less risky because of the intermediaries\’ expertise.


Question 6:

An advantage of a direct investment strategy when entering a foreign market is

A. Reduction in the capital at risk.

B. Shared control and responsibility.

C. Assurance of access when the foreign country imposes domestic content rules.

D. Avoidance of interaction with the local bureaucracy.

Correct Answer: C

Direct investment has many advantages:

(1)

cheaper materials or labor,

(2)

receipt of investment incentives from the host government, (3) a strong relationship with interested parties in the host country, (4) control of the investment,

(5)

a better image in the host country,

(6)

market access when domestic contest rules are in effect. However, direct investment is risky because of exposure to currency fluctuations, expropriation, potentially high exit barriers, and restraints on sending profits out of the country.


Question 7:

A firm that moves from not exporting on a regular basis to establishing plants in foreign countries has

A. Globalized.

B. Nationalized.

C. Glocalized.

D. Internationalized.

Correct Answer: D

The internationalization process is of crucial interest to nations that wish to encourage local firms to grow and to operate globally. According to Swedish researchers, it involves the following steps:

(1)

Lack of regular exports;

(2)

export via independent agents with a few markets, with later expansion to more countries;

(3)

creation of sales subsidiaries in larger markets; (4) establishment of plants in foreign countries.


Question 8:

Which strategy for a global marketing organization is based on a portfolio of national markets?

A. reaction of a division to manage international marketing.

B. A multinational strategy.

C. A global strategy.

D. Creation of an export department

Correct Answer: B

International marketing efforts take three basic forms:creation of an export department, creation of a division to manage international marketing, or global organization. The latter encompasses genuinely worldwide functions, e.g., manufacturing, marketing, finance, and logistics. Thus, worldwide operations are the organization\’s focus, not merely that of a department or division of a national firm. A global organization may follow a multinational, global, or glocal strategy. A multinational strategy adopts a portfolio approach. Its emphasis is on national markets because the need for global integration is not strong. The product is customized for each market and therefore incurs higher production costs. Decision making is primarily local with a minimum of central control. This strategy is most effective given large differences between countries. Also, exchange rate risk is reduced when conducting business in this manner.


Question 9:

Which strategy for a global marketing organization balances local responsiveness and global integration?

A. Global.

B. Multinational.

C. Glocal.

D. Transnational.

Correct Answer: C

A glocal strategy combines some elements of local responsiveness or adaptation with some elements of global integration. Successful telecommunications firms are examples of balancing these elements. Local responsiveness is indicated when local product tastes and preferences, regulations, and barriers are significant. Global integration is indicated when demand is homogeneous and economies of productive scale are large.


Question 10:

The creation of regional free trade zones is a global phenomenon. Trade barriers are lowered in these areas, and other steps are taken to promote economic cooperation. For example, a common currency has been adopted by the nations of:

A. NAFTA.

B. Mercosul.

C. APEC.

D. The European Union.

Correct Answer: D

The European Union (Eli) is a collection of 27 European nations that have lowered trade barriers among member states, and most of the nations share a common currency and trade policy. The euro is the common currency of the European Union.


Question 11:

The three major factors favoring globalization are

A. Cultural, commercial, and technical.

B. Flexibility, proximity, and adaptability.

C. Political, technological, and social.

D. Ambition, positioning, and organization.

Correct Answer: C

The new economy is driven by the digital revolution that facilitates international commerce by providing capabilities that did not exist a relatively few years ago. It is also driven by such political events as the fall of the Soviet Union, the participation of China in the world economic system, the emergence of the European Union, and the creation of other regional free trade zones. These technological and political factors are intertwined with social changes, for example, greater concern for the rights of women and minorities; the advance of multilingualism; and the convergence of tastes in fashion, music, and certain other cultural factors. Accordingly, these factors favor globalization by reducing trade barriers, reducing cost of coordination, increasing economies of scale, and encouraging standardization and global branding.


Question 12:

Which method of expanding into international markets is most likely the riskiest?

A. A local storage and sale arrangement.

B. Local component assembly.

C. Direct investment.

D. Joint venture.

Correct Answer: C

Direct investment has many advantages:

(1)

cheaper materials or labor,

(2)

receipt of investment incentives from the host government, (3) a strong relationship with interested parties in the host country, (4) control of the investment,

(5)

a better image in the host country,

(6)

market access when domestic contest rules are in effect. However, direct investment is risky because of exposure to currency fluctuations, expropriation, potentially high exit barriers, and restraints on sending profits out of the country.


Question 13:

Which strategy for a global marketing organization emphasizes relatively strong central control?

A. Global.

B. Multinational.

C. Creation of an international division.

D. Global

Correct Answer: A

A global strategy regards the world as one market. The product is essentially the same in all countries. Central control of the production process is relatively strong. Faster product development and lower production cost are typical.


Question 14:

Which of the following is a regional free-trade zone currently limited to South American nations?

A. APEC

B. Mercosul.

C. The Triad Market.

D. NAFTA.

Correct Answer: B

Mercosul is a free-trade agreement among South American nations. They include Argentina, Brazil, Uruguay, and Paraguay. Chile and Bolivia are associate members.


Question 15:

A country has a comparative advantage in international trade when

A. Firms in the country have a lower cost of production because of natural resources.

B. It has an absolute advantage with respect to at least one input to production.

C. Firms in the country have a lower cost of production because of transportation and other geographic factors.

D. It produces whatever it can produce most efficiently.

Correct Answer: D

A country has a comparative advantage when it can achieve a lower cost of production due to a focus on and a cooperative specialization in a particular product. The greatest advantage from trade is obtained when each nation specializes in producing what it can produce most efficiently. If nations specialize and then exchange with others, more is produced and consumed than if each nation tries to be self-sufficient. Specialization of labor is beneficial for individuals; the same principle applies to nations.


Free Sharing Updated 220-1002 VCE and PDF Exam Practice Materials

Tens of thousands of competitors, pages of hard questions and unsatisfied exam preparation situations… Do not worried about all those annoying things! We, help you with your CompTIA A Jun 08,2022 Newest 220-1002 pdf CompTIA A Certification Exam: Core 2 exam. We will assist you clear the Hotest 220-1002 vce dumps exam with CompTIA A latest 220-1002 dumps. We 220-1002 vce are the most comprehensive ones.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 220-1002 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the 220-1002 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 220-1002 dumps.These questions are from 220-1002 free dumps. All questions in 220-1002 dumps are from the latest 220-1002 real exams.

Question 1:

Which of the following types of scripts would be seen on the user end of a web page?

A. .bat

B. .js

C. .sh

D. .vbs

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

A user\’s computer is displaying a black screen. The technician restarts the computer, but the OS still does not load. The technician discovers the OS was patched the previous evening.

Which of the following should the technician attempt NEXT?

A. Reboot into safe mode and roll back the updates

B. Repair the Windows Registry

C. Configure boot options in the BIOS

D. Disable Windows services and applications

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

A small office calls a technician to investigate some “invalid certificate” errors from a concerned user. The technician observes that whenever the user to access a secure website from the Windows desktop, this error is encountered. No other users in the office are experiencing this error. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT? (Choose two.)

A. Remove any proxy servers configured on the user\’s browsers.

B. Assist the user with purchasing an SSL certificate and save the certificate to the desktop.

C. Disable the SPI firewall on the office\’s gateway and any other routers.

D. Instruct the user to ignore the certificate error since the user is connecting to a secure website.

E. Create an outbound rule in Windows Firewall named after the user\’s homepage.

F. Run anti-malware scans and download the latest Windows updates.

Correct Answer: AF


Question 4:

A technician has just finished installing a secondary OS on a workstation. After rebooting the computer, the technician receives the following error: No OS found. The technician confirms the boot.ini file is correct.

Which of the following is MOST likely causing this error?

A. The computer has GRUB Legacy installed

B. Windows Startup services are not running

C. An incompatible partition is marked as active

D. An unsupported version of Windows is installed

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

A technician is called to troubleshoot a user\’s Windows workstation that fails to boot. The user reports that, after updating the workstation\’s graphics driver to a beta version, the machine gives a “Stop” error on every boot

Which of the following should the technician complete to resolve the issue?

A. Boot the workstation in safe mode and disable the graphics driver system tray menu

B. Boot the workstation in safe mode with networking and install the latest stable graphics driver.

C. Boot the workstation in safe mode and disable Windows driver signing requirements

D. Boot the workstation in safe mode with Command Prompt and enable Driver Verifier with standard settings

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

A technician is repairing a computer. Which of the following should the technician do to protect the computer from accidental voltage spikes?

A. Practice electrical fire safety.

B. Clean tools properly before use.

C. Remove any jewelry.

D. Connect a proper ESD strap.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

A technician is troubleshooting a print issue on a Windows computer and want to disable the printer to test a theory, Which of the following should the technician use to accomplish this?

A. Devices and Printer

B. Sync Center

C. Device Manager

D. Power Option

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Which of the following devices provides protection against brownouts?

A. battery backup

B. surge suppressor

C. rack grounding

D. line conditioner

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which of the following is a community supported, open source OS used for both services and workstations?

A. IOS

B. Windows 10

C. Linux

D. OS X

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

A user who is running Windows 10 logs into a machine and notices that shared drives are missing, the “My Documents” folder is empty, and personal settings are reset. Which of the following would be required to resolve the issue?

A. Remove the registry entry and rename the local account folder

B. Delete or rename the local user folder

C. Run DISM and re-add the local power user account

D. Remove the user account in Credential Manager and restart the PC

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

A technician has been asked to recommend antivirus software for a home PC, but the user does not want to pay for a license. Which of the following license type should the technician recommend?

A. Open license

B. Personal license

C. Corporate license

D. Enterprise license

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

A systems administrator needs to add security to the server room.

Which of the following would provide the BEST security for the room? (Choose two.)

A. Universal serial bus locks

B. Personal identity verification cards

C. Privacy screen

D. Entry control roster

E. Door locks

F. Privacy window

Correct Answer: EF


Question 13:

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of an ESD mat?

A. Protects against accidental static discharge

B. Protects against dust/dirt contamination

C. Protects against accidental scratches

D. Protects against accidental water damage

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

In which of the following file extension types would a user expect to see the command. “net use T:\ \server\files\’?

A. .bat

B. .vbs

C. .js

D. .py

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

A junior Linux system administrator needs to update system software. Which of the following shell commands would allow the administrator to gain the necessary permissions to update the software?

A. sudo

B. chmod

C. grep

D. pwd

Correct Answer: A


Free Providing 1Z0-986 VCE Exam Study Guides With New Update Exam Questions

Attention please! Here is the shortcut to pass your Newest 1Z0-986 pdf exam! Get yourself well prepared for the Oracle Cloud Newest 1Z0-986 QAs Oracle Inventory Cloud 2017 Implementation Essentials exam is really a hard job. But don’t worry! We We, provides the most update 1Z0-986 exam questions. With We latest 1Z0-986 vce, you’ll pass the Oracle Cloud Jun 06,2022 Hotest 1Z0-986 practice Oracle Inventory Cloud 2017 Implementation Essentials exam in an easy way

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 1Z0-986 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the 1Z0-986 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 1Z0-986 dumps.If you need to check sample questions of the 1Z0-986 free dumps, go through the Q and As from 1Z0-986 dumps below.

Question 1:

Identify the availability type that is applicable for the item quantities maintained in a unit of measure different from the primary unit of measure and is available for various transactions.

A. On Hand

B. Secondary On-hand Quantity

C. available

D. Reserved

E. Secondary Available Quantity

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Your are in the process of analyzing the demand and supply schedules for the Item based on high level reservations.

Identify the reservation document type that would be applicable to both supply as well as demand.

A. Work Order

B. On Hand

C. Transfer Order

D. Movement Request

E. Requisition

F. Account Alias

Correct Answer: C

https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/farel12/scmcs_gs/FAMLO/FAMLO1153424.htm#FAMLO115


Question 3:

The physical inventory process is Carried out for and particular inventory organization with the following parameter:

*

Negative Quantity Tolerance Percentage is set to 10%

*

Approval Type = \’Always\’

The system says that there are 100 on hand, but you only counted 95. What will happen?

A. An approval will be required before posting.

B. The system will ask a user to recount before posting.

C. Because the 95 is within the 10% tolerance, it will post without approval.

D. The setup is invalid; it will give an error message.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

While negotiating the terms of the consignment agreement, the buyer and the supplier mutually agree to set the aging onset point as receipt and the aging period as five days. The terms also say that the consumption advice will be generated daily.

In which three scenarios will the goods be transferred from the supplier\’s ownership to buyer\’s ownership?

A. You received the goods today and after three days you transfer the ownership using the “create transfer to consigned transaction” task.

B. You received the goods today and you decide to issue the goods after three days without transferring the ownership.

C. You received the goods today and for the next one week you do not plan any action on the same.

D. You received the goods today and after four days you return the material to the supplier.

E. You received the goods today and after six days you decide to transfer the ownership using the “create transfer to consigned transaction” task.

F. You received the goods today and you transfer the ownership using the “create transfer to owned transaction” task.

Correct Answer: ACF


Question 5:

Reorder quantities for an item subinventory are calculated using Fixed Lot Multiple and Round Order Quantity. Assume that the reorder quantity is 24 and you specify 10 for the fixed lot multiple and enable rounding the reorder quantity. What will be the reorder quantity?

A. 30

B. 24

C. 25

D. 20

Correct Answer: D

https://fusionhelp.oracle.com/fscmUI/topic/TopicId_P_8B35A040501ED5BEE040D30A688 11E49

Example: Specifying the Fixed Lot MultipleAssume that the reorder quantity is 24. If you specify 10 for the fixed lot multiple and enable rounding the reorder quantity, the reorder quantity is rounded up to 30. If you disable rounding the reorder quantity, the reorder quantity is rounded down to 20.


Question 6:

A supply request has been received in supply chain orchestration. Both organizations belong to the same legal entity and they do not have a buy-sell relationship between them. Which type of execution document can fulfill the supply request?

A. Sales Order

B. Purchase Order

C. Transfer Order

D. Purchase Requisitions

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Your customer wants to prevent customer shipments out of a specific subinventory. They are setting up a material status to control this.

Which transaction do they need to disallow?

A. Sales Order Pick

B. Sales Order Issue

C. Move Request Putaway

D. Ship Confirm

E. Miscellaneous Issue

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Your customer has defined three business units: two of the them require the same set of receivables payment terms whereas the third needs a separate set of receivables payment terms.

How will you achieve this requirement?

A. Define one reference data set and modify the business unit security.

B. Define two reference data sets, assign the first set to the two business units which will share the same payment terms and second set to the business unit which needs separate payment terms.

C. Define one data set with common payment terms and exclude the payment terms feature from the third business unit.

D. Define three reference data sets and assign each data set to each business unit.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

For an Item to be enabled for back-to-back order process, which attribute do you need to set?

A. Organization attribute: Allow Back to Back Processing

B. Item attribute: Reservations Enabled

C. Organization attribute: Allow Reservations

D. Item attribute: Back-To Back Enabled

E. Item attribute: Allow purchase orders off of sales orders

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Your customer is a very large organization spanning across multiple countries. Their legal requirements, Human Resource Policies, and Functional Currencies for ledger are different for each country. Your customer wants to maintain 10

different companies in the system.

Which combination meets this requirement?

A. 1 Enterprise, 10 Divisions, where each division has its own ledger with common legal entity across all divisions

B. 10 Enterprises, 10 Divisions, where each division has its own legal entity and ledger

C. 1 Enterprise, 10 Divisions, where each division has its own legal entity and ledger

D. 10 Enterprises, 1 Division, where each division has 10 legal entities and 1 ledger

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Your client wants certain inventory items of high importance to be counted periodically to improve the average level of inventory accuracy. What type of counting would you recommend?

A. Manual Count

B. Zero Quantity Count

C. Cycle Count

D. Physical Count

E. Blind Count

F. Serialized Count

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Your supplier sent you stock against a consigned agreement. You transferred all the stock to owned and generated a consumption advice. An invoice was raised by the supplier and the payment mode. A few days after using some of the quantities of the stock, you realized that some of the stock sent by the supplier is not of suitable quality and you need to send the stock back.

What is the process of returning the material?

A. Return the material and create a debit memo for the supplier.

B. You have to cancel the Invoice and send the material back without changing the ownership.

C. You cannot return consigned items that are invoiced and paid. Treat the material as scrap.

D. You have to transfer the ownership of item and perform the return transaction.

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Your customer is setting up serial control. The requirement is that if Item A has serial 123, then they do not want item B to also have serial 123 within the same inventory organization.

Which serial control setting must be used to meet this requirement?

A. Unique across Enterprise

B. Unique within Item and organization

C. Unique across organizations

D. Unique within organization

E. Unique within Items

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/A60725_05/html/comnls/us/inv/sersetup.htm


Question 14:

You have set up min-max planning at the subinventory level with the following to source item AS12312 for Organization: M1:

*

Source Type: Organization

*

Organization: Ml

What type of supply request will be generated?

A. None; this is an invalid setup

B. Movement request

C. Internal Requisition

D. Intraorganization transfer order

E. Purchase Requisition

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

In the Back-to-Back (B2B) Order to Cash flow, ordered items are purchased from a supplier. The Sourcing Rules have been defined for the item and the buy flow has been initiated. The sales order line is shown as Awaiting Shipping and the supply line status is “In Purchasing” with the supply order generated but the purchase requisition not generating.

What is the reason?

A. Supply order is generated with exceptions.

B. Preparer is not valid.

C. The Sourcing rule is incorrect.

D. No Blanket Purchase Agreement (BPA) exists for this supplier-item combination.

E. Buy requests originate from Order Management.

Correct Answer: A


Free Sharing Updated 2V0-62.21 VCE and PDF Exam Practice Materials

Tens of thousands of competitors, pages of hard questions and unsatisfied exam preparation situations… Do not worried about all those annoying things! We, help you with your VCP-DW 2021 May 31,2022 Newest 2V0-62.21 exam questions Professional VMware Workspace ONE 21.X exam. We will assist you clear the Newest 2V0-62.21 vce exam with VCP-DW 2021 2V0-62.21 pdf. We 2V0-62.21 real exam questions are the most comprehensive ones.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 2V0-62.21 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the 2V0-62.21 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 2V0-62.21 dumps.Questions and answers from 2V0-62.21 free dumps are 100% free and guaranteed. See our full 2V0-62.21 dumps if you want to get a further understanding of the materials.

Question 1:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the device operating system on the left into the box associated with its third party messaging solution.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 2:

As a Workspace ONE administrator, you have been tasked with creating a custom visualization for management that shows device statistics, trust network threats, and application adoption metrics in a single view.

Which feature of Workspace ONE can be used?

A. Workspace ONE Intelligence Dashboards

B. Workspace ONE Access Application View

C. Workspace ONE Intelligence Automations

D. Workspace ONE UEM Device List View

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://techzone.vmware.com/resource/workspace-one-intelligence-architecture#workspace-one-uem


Question 3:

Which Workspace ONE UEM feature can assist in sending event log information to a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) tool?

A. Syslog Integration

B. Relay Server Integration

C. Certificate Authority Integration

D. File Storage Integration

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Which two steps would an administrator complete to enable auto-discovery for their Workspace ONE UEM environment? (Choose two.)

A. Enter the email domain when installing the AirWatch Cloud Connector.

B. Verify the domain by accepting the link in the email that registered auto-discovery.

C. Register email domain within Workspace ONE UEM.

D. Enter the email domain when establishing directory services.

E. Email [email protected] with the domain the administrator wants to register.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 5:

Where is Hub Services component co-located?

A. Workspace ONE Intelligence

B. Workspace ONE Access

C. Workspace ONE Airlift

D. Workspace ONE UEM

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Which two Workspace ONE UEM core components are required for all on-premises environments? (Choose two.)

A. Device Services

B. AirWatch Cloud Connector

C. Unified Access Gateway

D. Secure Email Gateway

E. Console Services

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://techzone.vmware.com/resource/workspace-one-uem-architecture#scalability


Question 7:

An administrator would like to track these details for all Windows desktops managed by Workspace ONE UEM:

driver details for a mouse driver warranty information for OS registry value of internal apps

Which Workspace ONE UEM utility can the administrator use?

A. Create LGPO and assign to Windows devices.

B. Create sensors and assign to Windows devices.

C. Create an OEM update profile and assign to Windows devices.

D. Create Application Control profile and assign to Windows devices.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Workspace-ONE-UEM/services/Windows_Desktop_Device_Management/GUID-uemWindeskSensors.html


Question 8:

When using Workspace ONE 20.x and higher, which three ways can an administrator using UEM automatically move devices into specified organization groups? (Choose three.)

A. user group mappings

B. device type mappings

C. location based mappings

D. IP-based mappings

E. device ownership mappings

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 9:

What product from Workspace ONE needs to be enabled to provide administrators a flexible method for alerting and informing end-users?

A. AirWatch Cloud Connector

B. Workspace ONE Intelligence

C. Workspace ONE Hub Services

D. VMware Tunnel

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://techzone.vmware.com/automating-notifications-workspace-one-operational-tutorial#_1267872


Question 10:

What component of the Hub Services can be integrated with Physical Access Control Systems to allow the Workspace ONE Intelligent app on mobile devices to act as digital badge?

A. Hub Employee Self-service

B. Hub Passport

C. Hub Catalog

D. Hub Access

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which administrative console is used to change to an organization logo (branding) in the Intelligent Hub Catalog?

A. Workspace ONE Access

B. Workspace ONE Hub Services

C. Workspace ONE

D. Workspace ONE UEM

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Workspace-ONE/services/intelligent-hub_IDM/GUID-DD632B89-7457-4764-B14F-48AAFAAC8113.html


Question 12:

Which is true about Workspace ONE compatibility when deploying content across different device types?

A. Content cannot be distributed to iOS devices.

B. Content cannot be distributed by Workspace ONE.

C. Content can be distributed to devices types including iOS, Android, Windows, and MacOS.

D. Content can be distributed to devices types including iOS, Android, and Windows.

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

A Workspace ONE UEM administrator is migrating collections, applications, and policies from SCCM to Workspace ONE.

When using AirLift, which three of the following must the administrator allow AirLift to access on the ConfigMgr server? (Choose three.)

A. Port 443 or specified TLS port if Secure Connection is configured

B. WinRM port (typically 5985)

C. Port 3268 or the specified Global Catalog port

D. Port 389 for Active Directory

E. Interactive Login Permissions

Correct Answer: ABE

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Workspace-ONE-UEM/services/WS1_AirLift_Configuration.pdf (7)


Question 14:

Which protocol does Workspace ONE use to communicate with third party Identity Providers?

A. SAML

B. Kerberos

C. RADIUS

D. OAuth

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which three Workspace ONE Edge Services are included in Unified Access Gateway? (Choose three.)

A. AirWatch Cloud Connector

B. Content Gateway

C. Secure Email Gateway

D. Workspace ONE Intelligence Connector

E. VMware Tunnel

Correct Answer: BCE