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Question 1:

What is the first step that needs to be carried out to investigate wireless attacks?

A. Obtain a search warrant

B. Identify wireless devices at crime scene

C. Document the scene and maintain a chain of custody

D. Detect the wireless connections

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

During the seizure of digital evidence, the suspect can be allowed touch the computer system.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Which one of the following statements is not correct while preparing for testimony?

A. Go through the documentation thoroughly

B. Do not determine the basic facts of the case before beginning and examining the evidence

C. Establish early communication with the attorney

D. Substantiate the findings with documentation and by collaborating with other computer forensics professionals

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Wireless network discovery tools use two different methodologies to detect, monitor and log a WLAN device (i.e. active scanning and passive scanning). Active scanning methodology involves ____________and waiting for responses from available wireless networks.

A. Broadcasting a probe request frame

B. Sniffing the packets from the airwave

C. Scanning the network

D. Inspecting WLAN and surrounding networks

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which root folder (hive) of registry editor contains a vast array of configuration information for the system, including hardware settings and software settings?

A. HKEY_USERS

B. HKEY_CURRENT_USER

C. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE

D. HKEY-CURRENT_CONFIG

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Computer security logs contain information about the events occurring within an organization\’s systems and networks. Application and Web server log files are useful in detecting web attacks. The source, nature, and time of the attack can be determined by _________of the compromised system.

A. Analyzing log files

B. Analyzing SAM file

C. Analyzing rainbow tables

D. Analyzing hard disk boot records

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Router log files provide detailed Information about the network traffic on the Internet. It gives information about the attacks to and from the networks. The router stores log files in the____________.

A. Router cache

B. Application logs

C. IDS logs

D. Audit logs

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

System software password cracking is defined as cracking the operating system and all other utilities that enable a computer to function

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

What is a bit-stream copy?

A. Bit-Stream Copy is a bit-by-bit copy of the original storage medium and exact copy of the original disk

B. A bit-stream image is the file that contains the NTFS files and folders of all the data on a disk or partition

C. A bit-stream image is the file that contains the FAT32 files and folders of all the data on a disk or partition

D. Creating a bit-stream image transfers only non-deleted files from the original disk to the image disk

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) is a data encryption method for WLANs based on 802.11 standards. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) enhances WEP by adding a rekeying mechanism to provide fresh encryption and integrity keys. Temporal keys are changed for every____________.

A. 5,000 packets

B. 10.000 packets

C. 15,000 packets

D. 20.000 packets

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

An attack vector is a path or means by which an attacker can gain access to computer or network resources in order to deliver an attack payload or cause a malicious outcome.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Hard disk data addressing is a method of allotting addresses to each ___________of data on a hard disk

A. Physical block

B. Logical block

C. Operating system block

D. Hard disk block

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

The disk in the disk drive rotates at high speed, and heads in the disk drive are used only to read data.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

What document does the screenshot represent?

A. Chain of custody form

B. Search warrant form

C. Evidence collection form

D. Expert witness form

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Volatile information can be easily modified or lost when the system is shut down or rebooted. It helps to determine a logical timeline of the security incident and the users who would be responsible.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

A colleague suggests using SmartMigration to improve write performance on certain LUNs. This is:

A. Not possible in any situation.

B. Possible in all situations.

C. Possible in some situations.

D. Only a temporary solution.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

A live gaming platform uses Huawei OceanStor all-flash storage systems with the flash-dedicated FlashLink technology. Which of the following statements about the multi-core technology of FlashLink are correct?

A. vNodes are bound to CPUs to reduce the overheads for scheduling and transmission across CPUs.

B. Read/write I/Os are deployed in different groups from other types of I/Os to avoid mutual interference.

C. A request is processed by one core until its completion. Cores are lock-free to avoid frequent switchovers among the cores.

D. The intelligent multi-core technology drives linear growth of storage performance with CPUs and cores.

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

A service host is connected to a storage device through Fibre Channel SAN. However, the service host cannot detect mapped LUNs after scanning. Which of the following are possible causes?

A. The Fibre Channel module on the service host is faulty.

B. No multipathing software is installed on the service host.

C. Zones are incorrectly configured.

D. The storage network is blocked by the firewall.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Which of the following statements about global deduplication is false?

A. Deduplicated copy in different storage policies uses the same DDB.

B. Deduplicated copy in different storage policies uses the same disk library and deduplication attributes.

C. Deduplicated copy in different storage policies uses the same deduplication pools as the backup target.

D. Different storage policies must adopt the same backup data retention period.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

An enterprise has deployed multiple applications, such as desktop cloud, database, video on demand (VoD), and backup. These applications occupy a large amount of storage resources. The enterprise plans to use the deduplication and compression features. Which of the following configurations are recommended?

A. Deduplication and compression are not recommended for VOD scenarios because video files have been compressed by application software and re-compression will be inefficient.

B. Deduplication is recommended for desktop cloud scenarios because there is a large amount of duplicate data among multiple virtual images.

C. Compression is recommended for database-scenarios because a large amount of data needs to be stored.

D. Deduplication is not recommended for backup scenarios because all backup data must be retained.

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

In file sharing scenarios, which factors affect the performance of clients served by Huawei OceanStor 9000?

A. Application characteristics

B. Feature configuration

C. Service network

D. Hardware configuration of the OceanStor 9000

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which of the following is not supported by HyperMetro?

A. Data zero copy

B. FastWrite

C. Memory ballooning

D. Optimized cross-site access

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

When creating disk domains select the option “All available disks” and then manually select disks.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

HyperClone supports writing to both the primary and secondary LUN.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

OandM involves various capability requirements, including not only product technologies, but also management regulations and processes.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

SmartCache can support both SAN and NAS services.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Hyper-converged infrastructure (HCI) uses a data center architecture that pools compute capacity, file storage, memory, and network resources and manages them as public entities.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

At the time of creation a SmartThin LUN does not occupy storage space.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

In Huawei OceanStor 9000, a node pool is a collection of nodes that have the same characteristics such as physical type and access performance, and dynamic storage tiering allows a user to group physical nodes in the same file system into different node pools.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Huawei hyper-converged storage supports parallel and fast data reconstruction. Data is fragmented in the resource pool. A disk failure triggers automatic and parallel reconstruction of the actual data by the entire resource pool without requiring hot spare disks.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

You are sizing a5 FlexPod Datacenter solution for multitenancy use.

What are two important platform scaling considerations in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A. maximum NetApp ONTAP cluster limits

B. maximum NetApp ONTAP storage VM limits

C. maximum Cisco vPC interfaces between Fabric Interconnects

D. maximum Cisco L1, L2 interfaces between Fabric Interconnects

Correct Answer: AD


Question 2:

You are developing a FlexPod solution with a MetroCluster IP as the storage solution. In this scenario, which two components are supported? (Choose two.)

A. NetApp AFF C190

B. Cisco Nexus 3524-X/XL

C. Cisco Nexus 3232C

D. NetApp AFF A400

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.netapp.com/blog/flexpod-datacenter-solutions/


Question 3:

You are asked to evaluate SaaS-based monitoring solutions for your FlexPod environment. Other than being SaaS-delivered, selection criteria include full lifecycle management, environment automation, and the ability to monitor third-party storage that is salted for retirement.

In this scenario, which product satisfies the requirements?

A. NetApp Cloud Insights

B. NetApp OnCommand Insight

C. Cisco UCS Manager

D. Cisco Intersight

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://cloud.netapp.com/hubfs/WP-7302-Cloud-Insights-Monitoring-Guide.pdf


Question 4:

A customer wants to use a Cisco Nexus 93180YC-FX switch to support the FC protocol for booting from SAN without having to deploy additional Cisco 900 Series MDS switches in their FlexPod Datacenter configuration. In this scenario, what is required for this solution?

A. The customer must enable the FC license on the 93180YC-FX switch

B. The customer must deploy the 93180YC-FX switch as part of a Cisco ACI fabric

C. The customer must directly connect the NetApp AFF system to the Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects

D. The customer must add an expansion FC module to the 93180YC-FX switch

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/UCS_CVDs/fp_vmware_vsphere_7_0_ontap_9_7.html


Question 5:

You are designing a multi-site FlexPod Datacenter solution for a customer using MetroCluster over IP. The design should include a single set of compliant switches for the environment. Which two features are required to satisfy this requirement? (Choose two.)

A. support for Fibre Channel ports

B. support for an MTU size of 9216

C. support for unified switch ports

D. support for QoS

Correct Answer: AD


Question 6:

You are sizing a FlexPod Virtual Desktop solution for a customer with 500 virtual desktops in a shared Remote Desktop Services (RDS) topology. In this scenario, which Cisco best practice should you use?

A. You should avoid placing more than 20 users per physical host

B. You should avoid over-committing physical CPU resources for virtual machines

C. You should avoid changing the virtual host disk queue depth

D. You should avoid multiple vCPUs per individual virtual machine

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.vmware.com/content/dam/digitalmarketing/vmware/en/pdf/techpaper/View51_on_FlexPod_Design_Guide.pdf


Question 7:

You have a FlexPod solution that consists of a NetApp AFF A800 storage system, a Cisco MDS 9148S switch, and a Cisco UCS 6232 Fabric Interconnect. You want to upgrade NetApp ONTAP software on the AFF A800 to take advantage of a new feature.

In this scenario, which three tools would enable you to verify if the upgrade would be performed safely? (Choose three.)

A. NetApp Interoperability Matrix Tool

B. Cisco Intersight

C. Cisco Data Center Network Manager

D. Cisco UCS Hardware and Software Compatibility List

E. NetApp Active IQ Upgrade Advisor

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 8:

You are designing a new FlexPod solution to use with VMware vSphere by using NFS datastores and want to ensure maximum availability by using a vPC. In this scenario, on which Cisco component would you configure vPC interfaces?

A. Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect

B. Cisco MDS switches

C. Cisco Nexus switches

D. UCS B-Series blade server

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/UCS_CVDs/flexpod_vmware_vs_7_design.html


Question 9:

What are three requirements for all FlexPod Datacenter solutions? (Choose three.)

A. two NetApp storage controllers in a high-availability (HA) pair configuration

B. a separate 100 Mbps Ethernet/1 Gbps Ethernet out-of-band management network

C. a pair of Fabric Extenders in a redundant configuration

D. two Cisco UCS 6200, 6300, or 6400 Series Fabric Interconnects in a redundant configuration

E. redundant boot-from-SAN LUN paths

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 10:

A customer wants to deploy a FlexPod Datacenter solution in a limited amount of rack space. After planning for the networking and storage devices required for the deployment, they realize they have six rack units of space remaining. They need to install as many servers as possible in this available rack space.

In this scenario, which solution allows them to accomplish their objective?

A. three Cisco UCS C4200 rack servers

B. four Cisco UCS B480 M blade servers

C. six Cisco UCS C220 M5 rack servers

D. eight Cisco UCS B200 M5 blade servers

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/UCS_CVDs/flexpod_vmware_vs_7_design.html#_Toc58868310


Question 11:

Your environment currently has a 12-node NetApp cluster serving iSCSI. You need to add at least four more nodes to serve FC to your environment. In this scenario, what should you do?

A. You can safely add up to 4 more storage controllers in the current cluster

B. You can safely add up to 6 more storage controllers in the current cluster

C. You must create a new cluster with the new storage controllers

D. You can safely add up to 12 more storage controllers in the current cluster

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

A customer wants to upgrade their code fabric between each site with a modular chassis switch that supports up to 400GbE per port to accommodate more business transaction volume. In this scenario, which device would help them accomplish their objective?

A. Cisco Nexus 9504

B. Cisco Nexus 9332C

C. Cisco MDS 9706

D. Cisco Catalyst 9400

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/data-center/high-capacity-400g-data-center-networking/index.html


Question 13:

You have a customer that wants to deploy a new data center environment and take advantage of server portability. You propose that they use Cisco UCS servers to take advantage of stateless computing operations. In this scenario, which Cisco UCS feature would help the customer achieve their objective?

A. SEL logs

B. MAC address pools

C. Service Profiles

D. VSANs

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/data-center-documents/what-is-stateless-computing-in-ucs/ta-p/3116244


Question 14:

A customer has configured a FlexPod solution and is experiencing issues with connectivity from the Cisco Nexus switches to the NetApp AFF controllers. The customer must verify connectivity using the FC protocol. What are two ways to troubleshoot this problem? (Choose two.)

A. Use the WWNN

B. Use the WWPN

C. Use the FCID

D. Use Domain ID

Correct Answer: BC


Question 15:

A customer plans to decommission a Cisco UCS B-Series server, as part of this action, the customer disassociates the service profile from the currently assigned server. Which action is performed by UCS Manager in this scenario?

A. It reboots the primary Fabric Interconnect immediately

B. It recalculates the power allotment for each blade server within the chassis

C. It reboots the secondary Fabric Interconnect immediately

D. It powers down the server

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ts/faults/reference/3-1/UCSFaultsErrorsRef_3-1/UCS_SEMs_3-1.html


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Question 1:

Which two EAP methods can use MSCHAPV2 for client authentication? (Choose two.)

A. PEAP

B. EAP-TTLS

C. EAP-TLS

D. EAP-GTC

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://help.fortinet.com/fauth/3-3/Content/FortiAuthenticator 3_3 Admin% 20Guide/500/501_EAP.htm


Question 2:

802.1X port authentication is enabled on only those ports that the FortiSwitch security policy is assigned to.

Which configurable items are available when you configure the security policy on FortiSwitch? (Choose two.)

A. FSSO groups

B. Security mode

C. User groups

D. Default guest group

Correct Answer: BC


Question 3:

A wireless network in a school provides guest access using a captive portal to allow unregistered users to self-register and access the network. The administrator is requested to update the existing configuration to provide captive portal authentication through a secure connection (HTTPS) to protect and encrypt guest user credentials after they receive the login information when registered for the first time.

Which two changes must the administrator make to enforce HTTPS authentication? (Choose two.)

A. Provide instructions to users to use HTTPS to access the network.

B. Create a new SSID with the HTTPS captive portal URL.

C. Enable Redirect HTTP Challenge to a Secure Channel (HTTPS) in the user authentication settings

D. Update the captive portal URL to use HTTPS on FortiGate and FortiAuthenticator

Correct Answer: BD


Question 4:

An administrator is deploying APs that are connecting over an IPsec network. All APs have been configured to connect to FortiGate manually. FortiGate can discover the APs and authorize them. However, FortiGate is unable to establish CAPWAP tunnels to manage the APs.

Which configuration setting can the administrator perform to resolve the problem?

A. Decrease the CAPWAP tunnel MTU size for APs to prevent fragmentation.

B. Enable CAPWAP administrative access on the IPsec interface.

C. Upgrade the FortiAP firmware image to ensure compatibility with the FortiOS version.

D. Assign a custom AP profile for the remote APs with the set mpls-connectionoption enabled.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

A host machine connected to port2 on FortiSwitch cannot connect to the network. All ports on FortiSwitch are assigned a security policy to enforce 802.1X port authentication. While troubleshooting the issue, the administrator runs the debug command and obtains the output shown in the exhibit.

Which two scenarios are the likely cause of this issue? (Choose two.)

A. The host machine is not configured for 802.1X port authentication.

B. The host machine does not support 802. 1X authentication.

C. The host machine is quarantined due to a security incident.

D. The host machine is configured with wrong VLAN ID.

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=FD46428


Question 6:

What action does FortiSwitch take when it receives a loop guard data packet (LGDP) that was sent by itself?

A. The receiving port is shut down.

B. The sending port is shut down

C. The receiving port is moved to the STP blocking state.

D. The sending port is moved to the STP blocking state

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.scribd.com/document/468940309/Secure-Access-6-0-Study-Guide-Online-pdf


Question 7:

Default VLANs are created on FortiGate when the FortiLink interface is created. By default, which VLAN is set as Allowed VLANs on all FortiSwitch ports?

A. Sniffer VLAN

B. Camera VLAN

C. Quarantine VLAN

D. Voice VLAN

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

What does DHCP snooping MAC verification do?

A. Drops DHCP release packets on untrusted ports

B. Drops DHCP packets with no relay agent information (option 82) on untrusted ports

C. Drops DHCP offer packets on untrusted ports

D. Drops DHCP packets on untrusted ports when the client hardware address does not match the source MAC address

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortiswitch/6.4.2/administration-guide/335964/dhcpsnooping (note)


Question 9:

Which statement correctly describes the quest portal behavior on FortiAuthenticator?

A. Sponsored accounts cannot authenticate using guest portals.

B. FortiAuthenticator uses POST parameters and a RADIUS client configuration to map the request to a guest portal for authentication.

C. All guest accounts must be activated using SMS or email activation codes.

D. All self-registered and sponsored accounts are listed on the local Users GUI page on FortiAuthenticator.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Refer to the exhibits.

Examine the firewall policy configuration and SSID settings.

An administrator has configured a guest wireless network on FortiGate using the external captive portal. The administrator has verified that the external captive portal URL is correct. However, wireless users are not able to see the captive portal login page.

Given the configuration shown in the exhibit and the SSID settings, which configuration change should the administrator make to fix the problem?

A. Enable the captive-portal-exemptoption in the firewall policy with the ID 11.

B. Apply a guest.portal user group in the firewall policy with the ID 11.

C. Disable the user group from the SSID configuration.

D. Include the wireless client subnet range in the Exempt Source section.

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit.

Examine the configuration of the FortiSwitch security policy profile.

If the security profile shown in the exhibit is assigned on the FortiSwitch port for 802.1X.port authentication, which statement is correct?

A. Host machines that do support 802.1X authentication, but have failed authentication, will be assigned the guest VLAN.

B. All unauthenticated users will be assigned the auth-fail VLAN.

C. Authenticated users that are part of the wired-users group will be assigned the guest VLAN.

D. Host machines that do not support 802.1X authentication will be assigned the guest VLAN.

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

Examine the network topology shown in the exhibit.

Which port should have root guard enabled?

A. FortiSwitch A, port2

B. FortiSwitch A, port1

C. FortiSwitch B, port1

D. FortiSwitch B, port2

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortiswitch/6.4.2/administration-guide/364614/spanningtree-protocol


Question 13:

Examine the following RADIUS configuration:

An administrator has configured a RADIUS server on FortiGate that points to FortiAuthenticator. FortiAuthenticator is acting as an authentication proxy and is configured to relay all authentication requests to a remote Windows AD server using LDAP.

While testing the configuration, the administrator notices that the diagnose test authservercommand works with PAP, however, authentication requests fail when using MSCHAPv2.

Which two changes should the administrator make to get MSCHAPv2 to work? (Choose two.)

A. Force FortiGate to use the PAP authentication method in the RADIUS server configuration.

B. Change the remote authentication server from LDAP to RADIUS on FortiAuthenticator.

C. Use MSCHAP instead of using MSCHAPv2

D. Enable Windows Active Directory Domain Authentication on FortiAuthenticator to add FortiAuthenticator to the Windows domain.

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortiauthenticator/6.0.0/administration-guide/641286/ remote-authentication-servers


Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

Examine the partial debug output shown in the exhibit.

Which two statements about the debug output are true? (Choose two.)

A. The connection to the LDAP server timed out.

B. The user authenticated successfully.

C. The LDAP server is configured to use regular bind.

D. The debug output shows multiple user authentications.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 15:

Which CLI command should an administrator use to view the certificate validation process in real-time?

A. diagnose debug application certd -1

B. diagnose debug application fnbamd -1

C. diagnose debug application authd -1

D. diagnose debug application foauthd -1

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

On the following picture an administrator configures Identity Awareness:

After clicking “Next” the above configuration is supported by:

A. Kerberos SSO which will be working for Active Directory integration

B. Based on Active Directory integration which allows the Security Gateway to correlate Active Directory users and machines to IP addresses in a method that is completely transparent to the user.

C. Obligatory usage of Captive Portal.

D. The ports 443 or 80 what will be used by Browser-Based and configured Authentication.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80BC_IdentityAwareness/ html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80BC_IdentityAwareness/62050


Question 2:

Which of the completed statements is NOT true? The WebUI can be used to manage user accounts and:

A. assign privileges to users.

B. edit the home directory of the user.

C. add users to your Gaia system.

D. assign user rights to their home directory in the Security Management Server.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Gaia_WebAdmin/73101.htm


Question 3:

In the Check Point Security Management Architecture, which component(s) can store logs?

A. SmartConsole

B. Security Management Server and Security Gateway

C. Security Management Server

D. SmartConsole and Security Management Server

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

View the rule below. What does the lock-symbol in the left column mean? (Choose the BEST answer.)

A. The current administrator has read-only permissions to Threat Prevention Policy.

B. Another user has locked the rule for editing.

C. Configuration lock is present. Click the lock symbol to gain read-write access.

D. The current administrator is logged in as read-only because someone else is editing the policy.

Correct Answer: B

https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/ R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/124265


Question 5:

Which VPN routing option uses VPN routing for every connection a satellite gateway handles?

A. To satellites through center only

B. To center only

C. To center and to other satellites through center

D. To center, or through the center to other satellites, to Internet and other VPN targets

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal? eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=andsolutionid=sk31021


Question 6:

Kofi, the administrator of the ALPHA Corp network wishes to change the default Gaia WebUI Portal port number currently set on the default HTTPS port. Which CLISH commands are required to be able to change this TCP port?

A. set web ssl-port

B. set Gaia-portal port

C. set Gaia-portal https-port

D. set web https-port

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal? eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=andsolutionid=sk83482


Question 7:

True or False: In a Distributed Environment, a Central License can be installed via CLI on a Security Gateway.

A. True, CLI is the prefer method for Licensing

B. False, Central License are handled via Security Management Server

C. False, Central Licenses are installed via Gaia on Security Gateways

D. True, Central License can be installed with CPLIC command on a Security Gateway

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

When a packet arrives at the gateway, the gateway checks it against the rules in the hop Policy Layer, sequentially from top to bottom, and enforces the first rule that matches a packet. Which of the following statements about the order of rule enforcement is true?

A. If the Action is Accept, the gateway allows the packet to pass through the gateway.

B. If the Action is Drop, the gateway continues to check rules in the next Policy Layer down.

C. If the Action is Accept, the gateway continues to check rules in the next Policy Layer down.

D. If the Action is Drop, the gateway applies the Implicit Clean-up Rule for that Policy Layer.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Which of the following is an identity acquisition method that allows a Security Gateway to identify Active Directory users and computers?

A. UserCheck

B. Active Directory Query

C. Account Unit Query

D. User Directory Query

Correct Answer: B

Reference : https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/ CP_R76_IdentityAwareness_AdminGuide/62402.htm


Question 10:

Why would an administrator see the message below?

A. A new Policy Package created on both the Management and Gateway will be deleted and must be backed up first before proceeding.

B. A new Policy Package created on the Management is going to be installed to the existing Gateway.

C. A new Policy Package created on the Gateway is going to be installed on the existing Management.

D. A new Policy Package created on the Gateway and transferred to the Management will be overwritten by the Policy Package currently on the Gateway but can be restored from a periodic backup on the Gateway.

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which command is used to add users to or from existing roles?

A. Add rba user roles

B. Add rba user

C. Add user roles

D. Add user

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Gaia_WebAdmin/73101.htm


Question 12:

Which option, when applied to a rule, allows traffic to VPN gateways in specific VPN communities?

A. All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

B. Accept all encrypted traffic

C. Specific VPN Communities

D. All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Fill in the blank: An identity server uses a __________ for user authentication.

A. Shared secret

B. Certificate

C. One-time password

D. Token

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which of the following blades is NOT subscription-based and therefore does not have to be renewed on a regular basis?

A. Application Control

B. Threat Emulation

C. Anti-Virus

D. Advanced Networking Blade

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Fill in the blank: __________ information is included in “Full Log” tracking option, but is not included in “Log” tracking option?

A. Destination port

B. Data type

C. File attributes

D. Application

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_LoggingAndMonitoring/ html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_LoggingAndMonitoring/131914


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Question 1:

Why are public frameworks, such as 1TIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?

A. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented

B. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt

C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do

D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

The design of IT services requires the effective and efficient use of “the four Ps”.

What are these four Ps?

A. People, process, partners, performance

B. Performance, process, products, plans

C. People, process, products, partners

D. People, products, plans, partners

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Which of the following BEST describes service strategies value to the business?

A. Allows higher volumes of successful change

B. Reduction in unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outages

C. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages

D. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their customers successful

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

A process owner has been identified with an “I” in a RACI matrix.

Which one of the following would be expected of them?

A. Be accountable for the outcome of an activity

B. Perform an activity

C. Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activity

D. Manage an activity

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?

A. Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages

B. Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services

C. Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the service designs that are produced

D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?

A. Informational, scheduled, normal

B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency

C. Informational, warning, exception

D. Warning, reactive, proactive

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?

A. Employers

B. Stakeholders

C. Regulators

D. Accreditors

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

The BEST description of an incident is: A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service

B. An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service

C. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned

D. Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted or not

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?

A. Continual service improvement

B. Change management

C. Service level management

D. Availability management

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?

A. The value of a service

B. Governance

C. Total cost of ownership (TCO)

D. Key performance indicators (KPIs)

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which of these statements about resources and capabilities is CORRECT?

A. Resources are types of service asset and capabilities are not

B. Resources and capabilities are both types of service asset

C. Capabilities are types of service asset and resources are not

D. Neither capabilities nor resources are types of service asset

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

What should a service always deliver to customers?

A. Applications

B. Infrastructure

C. Value

D. Resources

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Availability management is directly responsible for the availability of which of the following?

A. IT services and components

B. IT services and business processes

C. Components and business processes

D. IT services, components and business processes

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which of the following are reasons why ITIL is successful?

1.

ITIL is vendor neutral

2.

It does not prescribe actions

3.

ITIL represents best practice

A. All of the above

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which one of the following includes four stages called Plan, Do, Check and Act?

A. The Deming Cycle

B. The continual service improvement approach

C. The seven-step improvement process

D. The service lifecycle

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

In CSS, the flow-into property deposits:

A. the flow into the content.

B. the regions into a flow.

C. the flow into the regions.

D. content into the flow.

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

The data in a specific HTML5 local storage database can be accessed from:

A. Different browsers on the same device.

B. Different browsers on different devices.

C. The same browser on different devices.

D. The same browser on the same device.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which HTML5 tag defines superscript text?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

What does the following HTML5 code fragment do?

A. It plays the myVacation.avi video if the browser supports it; otherwise, plays the myVacation.ogg video if the browser supports it.

B. It plays two videos: first myVacation.avi, and then myVacation.ogg.

C. It plays both videos simultaneously, myVacation.avi and myVacation.ogg.

D. It prompts the user to choose which format of the myVacation video it should play, .avi or .ogg.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Which attribute prefills a default value for an input element in HTML5?

A. name

B. placeholder

C. autocomplete

D. required

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

You need to use JavaScript to access the “section1” element in the following code fragment:

Which method should you use?

A. getElementsByTagName

B. getElementById

C. getElementsByName

D. getElementsByClassName

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which CSS3 code fragment will style only the external links in an HTML document?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

You work as a senior developer at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com.

You are running a training exercise for junior developers. You are currently discussing a method associated with the localStorage object. The method can be used to write data to local storage.

Which of the following is the method being discussed?

A. The initStorageEvent method.

B. The process method.

C. The setItem method.

D. The setImmediate method.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

You work as a senior developer at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com.

You are running a training exercise for junior developers. You are currently discussing CSS style sheets.

Which of the following is TRUE with regards to CSS style sheets? (Choose all that apply.)

A. It specifies resources for an offline HTML5 application.

B. It specifies resources for an online HTML5 application.

C. It specifies resources for an XML application.

D. It specifies resources for an offline XAML application.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

You work as a senior developer at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com. ABC.com makes use of HTML5 and CSS3 in their development process.

You are developing a page that includes the Geolocation API. You have to include a method in your code that commences listening for updates to the current geographical location of the device running the client.

Which of the following actions should you take?

A. You should consider making use of the setInterval method.

B. You should consider making use of the watchPosition method.

C. You should consider making use of the setItem method.

D. You should consider making use of the setInterval method.

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

You work as a senior developer at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com.

You are running a training exercise for junior developers. You are currently discussing an object of the Geolocation API that has the code and message properties.

Which of the following is the object being discussed?

A. The Coordinates object.

B. The Geolocation object.

C. The PositionError object.

D. The Position object.

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Match the HTML5 input attributes to the corresponding descriptions. (To answer, drag the appropriate attribute from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each attribute may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.)

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 13:

Match the JavaScript objects to the corresponding characteristics or methods. (To answer, drag the appropriate JavaScript object from the column on the left to its characteristic or method on the right. Each JavaScript object may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.)

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 14:

Match the CSS position property values to the corresponding descriptions. (To answer, drag each value from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.)

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


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Question 1:

Which of the following is typical of software licensing in the cloud?

A. Per socket

B. Perpetual

C. Subscription-based

D. Site-based

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

A server administrator wants to run a performance monitor for optimal system utilization. Which of the following metrics can the administrator use for monitoring? (Choose two.)

A. Memory

B. Page file

C. Services

D. Application

E. CPU

F. Heartbeat

Correct Answer: AE


Question 3:

After configuring IP networking on a newly commissioned server, a server administrator installs a straight- through network cable from the patch panel to the switch. The administrator then returns to the server to test network connectivity using the ping command. The partial output of the ping and ipconfig commands are displayed below:

The administrator returns to the switch and notices an amber link light on the port where the server is connected. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the lack of network connectivity?

A. Network port security

B. An improper VLAN configuration

C. A misconfigured DHCP server

D. A misconfigured NIC on the server

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

A user cannot save large files to a directory on a Linux server that was accepting smaller files a few minutes ago. Which of the following commands should a technician use to identify the issue?

A. pvdisplay

B. mount

C. df -h

D. fdisk -l

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Following a recent power outage, a server in the datacenter has been constantly going offline and losing its configuration. Users have been experiencing access issues while using the application on the server. The server technician notices the data and time are incorrect when the server is online. All other servers are working. Which of the following would MOST likely cause this issue? (Choose two.)

A. The server has a faulty power supply

B. The server has a CMOS battery failure

C. The server requires OS updates

D. The server has a malfunctioning LED panel

E. The servers do not have NTP configured

F. The time synchronization service is disabled on the servers

Correct Answer: CF


Question 6:

A company has implemented a requirement to encrypt all the hard drives on its servers as part of a data loss prevention strategy. Which of the following should the company also perform as a data loss prevention method?

A. Encrypt all network traffic

B. Implement MFA on all the servers with encrypted data

C. Block the servers from using an encrypted USB

D. Implement port security on the switches

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

A systems administrator is setting up a server on a LAN that uses an address space that follows the RFC 1918 standard. Which of the following IP addresses should the administrator use to be in compliance with the standard?

A. 11.251.196.241

B. 171.245.198.241

C. 172.16.19.241

D. 193.168.145.241

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://whatis.techtarget.com/definition/RFC-1918


Question 8:

An administrator needs to perform bare-metal maintenance on a server in a remote datacenter. Which of the following should the administrator use to access the server\’s console?

A. IP KVM

B. VNC

C. A crash cart

D. RDP

E. SSH

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://phoenixnap.com/blog/what-is-bare-metal-server


Question 9:

A technician needs to provide a VM with high availability. Which of the following actions should the technician take to complete this task as efficiently as possible?

A. Take a snapshot of the original VM

B. Clone the original VM

C. Convert the original VM to use dynamic disks

D. Perform a P2V of the original VM

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://forsenergy.com/en-us/virtual_help/html/1325909c-5878-4674-a152-3fd3d4e8e3c6.htm


Question 10:

A server administrator receives a report that Ann, a new user, is unable to save a file to her home directory on a server. The administrator checks Ann\’s home directory permissions and discovers the following:

dr-xr-xr– /home/Ann

Which of the following commands should the administrator use to resolve the issue without granting unnecessary permissions?

A. chmod 777 /home/Ann

B. chmod 666 /home/Ann

C. chmod 711 /home/Ann

D. chmod 754 /home/Ann

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://linuxize.com/post/what-does-chmod-777-mean/


Question 11:

Which of the following documents would be useful when trying to restore IT infrastructure operations after a non-planned interruption?

A. Service-level agreement

B. Disaster recovery plan

C. Business impact analysis

D. Business continuity plan

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

A systems administrator is setting up a new server that will be used as a DHCP server. The administrator installs the OS but is then unable to log on using Active Directory credentials. The administrator logs on using the local administrator account and verifies the server has the correct IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway. The administrator then gets on another server and can ping the new server. Which of the following is causing the issue?

A. Port 443 is not open on the firewall

B. The server is experiencing a downstream failure

C. The local hosts file is blank

D. The server is not joined to the domain

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

A systems administrator is preparing to install two servers in a single rack. The administrator is concerned that having both servers in one rack will increase the chance of power issues due to the increased load. Which of the following should the administrator implement FIRST to address the issue?

A. Separate circuits

B. An uninterruptible power supply

C. Increased PDU capacity

D. Redundant power supplies

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which of the following is a method that is used to prevent motor vehicles from getting too close to building entrances and exits?

A. Bollards

B. Reflective glass

C. Security guards

D. Security cameras

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bollard


Question 15:

A technician is installing a variety of servers in a rack. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the technician to take while loading the rack?

A. Alternate the direction of the airflow

B. Install the heaviest server at the bottom of the rack

C. Place a UPS at the top of the rack

D. Leave 1U of space between each server

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

What is not an approach for risk mitigation?

A. Reducing the probability of occurrence by choosing an alternate approach

B. Reducing the impact of the risk by having a plan in place to immediatelyreadto the event.

C. Accepting some of the risks and adding them to the Issues log since they will probably become an issue anyway.

D. Accepting some of the risks from the onset and controlling those risks throughout the project lifecycle.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which Oracle Unified Method phase includes Bid Transition?

A. Project Start Up

B. Project Closure

C. Project Executing and Control

D. Financial Management

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

According to the recommended training for this exam, what is the “triple constraint”?

A. time, resources, quality/scope

B. time, quality/scope, performance

C. client availability, budget, modifications

D. products licensed, service requests limits, annual maintenance

Correct Answer: A

*Scope, Time and Cost together are termed as the Triple Constraints of a Project.

*Risk avoidance involves changing the project plan to eliminate therisk or to protect the project objectives (time, cost, scope, quality) from itsimpact. The team might achieve this by changing scope, adding time, oradding resources (thus

relaxing the so-called “triple constraint”)

Note:


Question 4:

Select three statements that are true about the OUM Implement Core Workflow.

A. It helps accelerate practitioner\’s understanding of the Oracle Unified Method.

B. It helps project teams focus on the essentials.

C. It focuses on custom development projects.

D. It can be used to identify the weak points of a project.

E. It identifies the most important tasks.

F. It focuses on configuration projects.

Correct Answer: ABE

A:OUM Implement Core Workflowshould serve to accelerate the understanding of OUM by new practitioners.

B: The Implement Core Workflow also highlights the tasks that are at the heart of the Implement focus area.

E:The first step is to start from a core set of tasks. We recommend that you consider using the OUM Implement Core Workflow for this purpose along with an OUM view that best matches the needs of your project. Remember, though, that the views tend to be a superset of tasks related to a particular solution, discipline, or technology. Therefore, the core workflow and views should be used together to achieve the right balance for your project.


Question 5:

A client asks a Project Manager to change the format of the project plan. It is expected to be a five hour task. The client has requested this task be completed by the end of the work week and non- billable. Identify two valid responses.

A. All work for the benefit of the client is billable.

B. The client may share existing project plan with his staff for reformatting.

C. The Project Manager gladly accepts the task and sets the expectation that the client can determine which tasks are billable.

D. The Project Manager declines because only the existing format is allowed.

Correct Answer: BC


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Question 1:

A customer claims that while redeploying a web application in the production system all their customers are having to log in again. What do you recommend?

A. Sessions can\’t be preserved when redeploying applications. The customer needs to consider redeployment during late nights when the traffic is low.

B. Change the flag responsible for the development mode of their environment. In the production mode, all sessions are preserved while redeploying application.

C. Change Hotspot to JRockit. Sessions can\’t be preserved on HotSpot when redeploying application.

D. Use flag -version when redeploying the application. This will switch on the Side By Side deployment feature and preserve existing sessions.

E. Open a service request with Oracle Support. This is unexpected behavior. Sessions are preserved without any extra settings.

Correct Answer: D

Restrictions on Production Redeployment Updates

WebLogic Server can host a maximum of two different versions of an application at one time.

Note:

*

When you redeploy a new version of an application, you cannot change: An application\’s deployment targets An application\’s security model A Web application\’s persistent store settings

To change any of the above features, you must first undeploy the active version of the application. Incorrect:

*

(not A)

Production redeployment enables you to update and redeploy an application in a production environment without stopping the application or otherwise interrupting the application\’s availability to clients. Production redeployment saves you the

trouble of scheduling application downtime, setting up redundant servers to host new application versions, manually managing client access to multiple application versions, and manually retiring older versions of an application.

*

(not C) Not dependant on whether the application is JRockit or Hotspot.

*

(not E)

The production redeployment strategy is supported for:

Standalone Web Application (WAR) modules and enterprise applications (EARs) whose clients access the application via a Web application (HTTP).

Enterprise applications that are accessed by inbound JMS messages from a global JMS destination, or from inbound JCA requests.

All types of Web Services, including conversational and reliable Web Services, but not 8.x Web Services.

Production redeployment is not supported for:

Standalone EJB or RAR modules. If you attempt to use production redeployment with such modules, WebLogic Server rejects the redeployment request. To redeploy such modules, remove their version identifiers and explicitly redeploy the

modules.

Applications that use JTS drivers. For more information on JDBC application module limitations, see JDBC Application Module Limitations in Configuring and Managing JDBC Data Sources for Oracle WebLogic Server.

Applications that obtain JDBC data sources via the DriverManager API; in order to use production redeployment, an application must instead use JNDI to look up data sources.

Applications that include EJB 1.1 container-managed persistence (CMP) EJBs. To use production redeployment with applications that include CMP EJBs, use EJB 2.x CMP instead of EJB 1.1 CMP.

Reference: Reference; Deploying Applications to Oracle WebLogic Server 12c, Redeploying Applications in a Production Environment


Question 2:

A common approach to solve application performance issues is to add more hardware. Which two reasons describe why this alone does not always solve performance problems?

A. There may be a bottleneck in the application that additional hardware would not solve.

B. Adding more hardware is costly and time consuming.

C. Adding hardware at the application layer may place additional load on an already overloaded database, network appliance, or storage system.

D. Adding more hardware may introduce new configuration requirements that need to be tested.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 3:

How can you configure High Availability for interacting with a non-Oracle database using WebLogic?

A. Configure multiple physical data sources and reuse the same JNDI name for each.

B. Use the “compatibility” option of Active GridLink to enable compatibility with non-Oracle databases.

C. Configure a single physical data source for each node in a database cluster and wrap it using Multi Data Source.

D. Configure a Data Source Group that contains a physical connection pool to each node in the database cluster.

Correct Answer: C

Note:

*

A multi data source can be thought of as a pool of data sources. Multi data sources are best used for failover or load balancing between nodes of a highly available database system, such as redundant databases or Oracle Real Application Clusters (Oracle RAC).

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(not B) A single GridLink data source provides connectivity between WebLogic Server and an Oracle Database service, which may include multiple Oracle RAC clusters

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High Availability Storage Solutions

If you have applications that need access to persistent stores that reside on remote machines after the migration of a JMS server or JTA transaction log, then you should implement one of the following highly- available storage solutions:

/ File-based stores (default or custom)–Implement a hardware solution, such as a dual-ported SCSI disk or Storage Area Network (SAN) to make a file store available from shareable disks or remote machines.

/ JDBC-accessible stores–Configure a JDBC store or JDBC TLOG store and use JDBC to access this store, which can be on yet another server. Applications can then take advantage of any high-availability or failover solutions offered by

your database vendor. In addition, JDBC stores support GridLink data sources and multi data sources, which provide failover between nodes of a highly available database system, such as Oracle Real Application Clusters (Oracle RAC).

Reference: Oracle Fusion Middleware Configuring Server Environments for Oracle WebLogic Server 12c, High Availability Storage Solutions


Question 4:

Identify the three processes that customers can choose for patching WebLogic Server.

A. Download patches from My Oracle Support and manage them using Smart Update.

B. Use Enterprise Manager to download patches from My Oracle Support and apply patches to WebLogic.

C. Download patches from My Oracle Support and manually modify the classpath of the application server (though it is not recommended).

D. Download patches from My Oracle Support and apply them using the WebLogic Admin Console.

E. Use the Admin Console to connect to My Oracle Support and download patches and then target them to the domain.

Correct Answer: ABC

A: Oracle Smart Update is a standalone Java application that is automatically installed in the Middleware home utils/bsu directory. Smart Update simplifies the process of applying patches to your WebLogic Server installation. When support makes a patch available for an installed version of WebLogic Server, you download the patch from My Oracle Support and then use Oracle Smart Update to apply it to your installation. Smart Update organizes all available updates for you, and has several features that allow a great deal of customizing in the way various patches are applied and managed in your environment.

B: As part of a new Enterprise Manager system, the installation wizard does the following:

* Oracle My Oracle Support Management Plug-In etc.

C: Applying patch from server start script:

After downloading the patch (jar file) follow the below steps:

-Stop your server.

– Then take the path of the folder which has the CRxxxxxx_xxxmpx.jar file and copy it in the CLASSPATH of setDomainEnv.cmd which is in

(/user_projects/domains//bin/setDomainEnv.cmd)

For example, the script would look something like this:

set CLASSPATH=%PRE_CLASSPATH%;%WEBLOGIC_CLASSPATH%;

C:\extra\my_projects\doc\CR\CR218639_920mp3.jar;C:\extra\my_projects\doc \CR\ CR360676_920mp3.jar;C:\extra\my_projects\doc\CR\CR367966_920mp3.jar;

C:\extra\my_projects\doc\CR\CR368155_920mp3.jar;C:\extra\my_projects\doc\CR\CR370311_ 920mp3.jar

-Re-start your server.

-You should see the patch applied in the stdout file.


Question 5:

You want to migrate an application that was developed for OAS/OC4J to WebLogic. The application uses Oracle Streams Advanced Queuing (AQ). You configured a Foreign JMS Server and Data Source but you are not able to send messages to the AQ destination and see them reach the database. Which two things are missing in this configuration?

A. nothing, there may be a network connection issue

B. a Foreign JMS Connection Factory

C. a JMS Bridge to map the JNDI of the Local JMS Destination to the remote AQ destination

D. a mapping of the Foreign JMS Connection Factory to the Data Source where AQ is configured and installed.

E. Oracle AQ Java EE Shared Libraries not deployed and referenced by your application

Correct Answer: CE

C:

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A WebLogic Messaging Bridge communicates with the configured source and target bridge destinations. For each mapping of a source destination to a target destination, you must configure a messaging bridge instance. Each messaging bridge instance defines the source and target destination for the mapping, a message filtering selector, a QOS, transaction semantics, and various reconnection parameters.

Note:

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In your JMS Foreign Server configuration:

/ Specify oracle.jms.AQjmsInitialContextFactory as the JNDI Initial Context Factory. / Configure the JDBC data sources needed for your application environment.