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Question 1:

Where will an account manager find the largest source of case studies, whitepapers, demos, and vertical- oriented Information around Cisco Collaboration?

A. Collaboration Use Case

B. QuickStart for Cisco Collaboration

C. Cisco Competitive Edge Portal

D. Steps to Success

E. Cisco Collaboration business case

Correct Answer: E


Question 2:

Once you define the customer\’s value chain, you will be able to identify departments managing core processes where the Cisco Collaboration Architecture will bring highest business value.

Which two of the following departments typically manage core processes? (Choose two.)

A. Procurement

B. Sales and Marketing

C. Logistics and Operations

D. HR Management

E. Research and Development

Correct Answer: BC


Question 3:

Which option leads to the development of high-level and detailed customer designs?

A. Mapping collaboration maps with the customer\’s existing solutions

B. Mapping collaboration maps with the customer assessment procedure

C. Mapping collaboration maps with the customer business model

D. Mapping collaboration maps with the Cisco Collaboration Architecture solutions

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Security plays an essential role in the Cisco Collaboration Architecture In which layers of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture is security implemented?

A. Advanced Cisco security solutions are implemented in all layers of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture model.

B. Security is implemented in all the layers except in the medianet services interface layer.

C. Cisco security solutions are integrated into the infrastructure layer and partially into the collaboration services layer

D. Cisco provides advanced security solutions in the infrastructure and collaboration services layers while the collaboration applications layer security is ensured by third-party solutions.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Which two customer statements present business ROI? (Choose two)

A. With Cisco Collaboration, we can deploy Extension Mobility, which will allow employees to “touchdown” at any workspace

B. With Cisco Collaboration, we will engage quicker with third-party suppliers and will shorten go-to- market time for innovative products globally

C. A Cisco Collaboration Architecture will improve our company\’s morale

D. Cisco Telepresence can integrate with our existing video infrastructure

E. Cisco Collaboration helps us to increase the productivity of our sales force and to gain new revenue streams through new customers

Correct Answer: BE


Question 6:

Which digital signaling is correctly mapped to its functionality?

A. T1 PRI NFAS – Used to connect to the PSTN where caller ID is required and PRI is not an option

B. T1 CAS – Used widely in North America to connect to the PSTN or PBXs

C. T1 FGD – Uses a single D channel to control multiple spans of T1s with only B channels option

D. T1 and E1 PRI – Uses the Q Signaling variation of the basic ISDN specification

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which two statements about how PBX architectures compare to Cisco Unified Communications are true? (Choose two.)

A. A PBX architecture offers advanced, integrated applications such as presence and integrated video.

B. Cisco Unified Communications offers advanced, integrated applications such as presence and integrated video.

C. Cisco Unified Communications provides historical reporting, unlike traditional PBXs.

D. Cisco Unified Communications decreases costs of MACs

E. A PBX offers increased security.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 8:

Which three options are assessment types for gap analysis? (Choose three.)

A. Architectural assessments

B. Operational assessments

C. Business assessments

D. Outsourcing assessments

E. Technology assessments

F. Virtualization assessments

Correct Answer: ABE


Question 9:

Which option represents an organizational change objection?

A. We are expanding and acquiring new business. This is the wrong time to switch to collaboration.

B. How can we justify the fact that it is far more expensive than upgrading our existing solution?

C. How can a collaboration architecture help reduce our operating expenses?

D. A migration is impossible without high costs or operational fallouts.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Which option is a next-generation agent and supervisor desktop that offers a user-centric design to enhance customer care satisfaction along with a collaborative experience?

A. Cisco WebEx

B. Cisco SocialMiner

C. Cisco Finesse

D. Cisco Jabber

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Which tool offers a blueprint for designing and deploying a full-service, comprehensive network to support business needs?

A. Cisco Smart Business Roadmap

B. Cisco Collaboration Use Case Tool

C. Cisco Steps to Success

D. Cisco Smart Business Architecture

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

In which layer of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture do you find session and content management?

A. Collaboration applications layer

B. Endpoint device layer

C. Infrastructure layer

D. Collaboration services layer

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Which two options are advantages of a Collaboration Architecture that are important from the Human Resource Manager\’s viewpoint? (Choose two.)

A. 24-hour network support.

B. Advanced collaboration tools improve upon ways in which corporations can enforce employee accountability.

C. The corporation gains increased redundancy in the communications network

D. Emergency response is improved upon, which results in a safer work environment

E. Advanced collaboration applications provide multiple communication channels through which employees can communicate with one another.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 14:

Which two options are ways by which collaboration has impacted the government sector? (Choose two.)

A. Improved safety and security

B. Improved operations and impact

C. Anytime, anywhere learning

D. Growing loyalty

E. Increased employee productivity

Correct Answer: AB


Question 15:

Which statement about Medianet is true?

A. Medianet enables integration of video infrastructure with network infrastructure.

B. Medianet enables Cisco Collaboration network management

C. Medianet is an intelligent network that is optimized for rich media

D. Medianet is the network infrastructure layer of video networks

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

What does the fraud detection module provide out-of-the-box? (2)

A. If an order is identified as fraud, it is rejected automatically and marked as cancelled

B. Essential fraud checks conducted by the internal fraud service

C. A sample/mockup implementation based on a fraud symptom detection

D. A storefront interface for customers to see the reason that their order is judged fraudulent

Correct Answer: AC


Question 2:

How do you add a property to a set of products? (2)

A. Create a new classification category and feature, and assign it to a catalog category

B. Create a new catalog version and include all products with the new required property

C. Create a new facet and include the new required property

D. Create a sub type of the product item type and include the new required property

Correct Answer: AB


Question 3:

You want to create a new web page. What are page templates used for? (2)

A. To add restrictions to a page

B. To specify the shared slots

C. To specify the layout of a page

D. To create page components

Correct Answer: AD


Question 4:

What can you do in the Basic Edit mode of SmartEdit? (3)

A. Synchronize a content catalog

B. Add components to a page

C. Add or edit component restrictions

D. Move components within a page

E. Save or recall a version

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 5:

Which out-of-the-box features do Commerce Customizations provide? (2)

A. Personalized promotions

B. Personalized product bundles

C. Personalized search results

D. Personalized prices

Correct Answer: AC


Question 6:

Which features are specific to the SAP Commerce, telco and media accelerator? (2)

A. Find agent

B. Fraud detection engine

C. Subscriptions

D. Bundling of products and services

Correct Answer: CD


Question 7:

You want to feature a page on your storefront that can only be viewed by a special user group. What SAP Commerce user interface do you use to do this?

A. BackOffice Adaptive Search Perspective

B. BackOffice Sales Organization Perspective

C. BackOffice Product Cockpit

D. SmartEdit

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

In SAP Commerce, if multiple PriceRows match a price request, which PriceRow has priority?

A. The PriceRow for a specific product group and customer group

B. The PriceRow with NO specific product or customer

C. The PriceRow with NO specific product but with specific customer

D. The PriceRow for a specific product and specific customer

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Which features are specific to the SAP Commerce, B2B accelerator? (3)

A. Order approval processes

B. Product searching

C. PunchOut support

D. Bundling promotions

E. Price quote requests

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 10:

In SAP Commerce, where can you configure Availability to Promise?

A. ln the BackOffice Administration Cockpit

B. In the BackOffice Adaptive Search Perspective

C. In the BackOffice Order Fulfillment Cockpit

D. In the BackOffice Customer Support Cockpit

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which user interfaces can be used to change prices? (2)

A. BackOffice Customer Support Cockpit

B. BackOffice Administration Cockpit

C. SmartEdit

D. BackOffice Product Cockpit

Correct Answer: BD


Question 12:

Which of the following solutions can be used to integrate third-party systems with SAP Commerce? (3)

A. Datahub

B. RESTful services

C. BackOffice Product Content Management

D. SAP Integration APIs

E. Administration console (hac) of SAP Commerce

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 13:

What are key features of entitlement and metering for SAP Commerce? (3)

A. Ability to automatically connect external entitlement platforms

B. Ability to view entitlements in the WCMS Cockpit

C. Abil ty to assign multiple metered or non-meterd entitlements to a product

D. Abil ty to measure usage and limit access when a threshold is reached

E. Abil ty to grant entitlements at checkout

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 14:

For which use case is a product variant appropriate?

A. The product manager defines new product attributes based on the product\’s location in the category hierarchy

B. The customer selects the fabric of a product being added to the cart

C. The customer selects each component of a bundle from a list of available products

D. The product manager defines a localized variation of a product for each country-specific Web site

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which SAP solutions can be integrated with SAP Commerce out-of-the-box? (3)

A. SAP Sales and Distribution

B. SAP Materials Management

C. SAP Customer Engagement Center

D. SAP Marketing Cloud

E. SAP Revenue Cloud

Correct Answer: CDE


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Question 1:

A user has installed two new drives in one of the computers in the computer lab and has been unable to format Disk1 from the command prompt. The lab requires that Disk1 be a dynamic disk configured with two partitions. The first partition

must be 256,000 MB in size and mapped to drive F. The second partition must be 512,000 MB in size and mapped to drive G.

The new partitions must be formatted to ensure that users\’ files can be secured from other users and that the disk must be configured to account for future redundancy.

Instructions: Conduct the necessary steps within the Disk Manager to accomplish these tasks. When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit.

Correct Answer: Review the for all details.

Right click on disk 1, click on initialize

Choose disk and option as MBR. Hit ok.

Again, right click on disk 1 and choose convert to dynamic disk. Now right click on disk 1 and choose new simple volume. Specify storage as 256000 and assign a drive letter F and choose file system as NTFS and click finish.

Do the same thing for rest of space of disk 1, assigning 512000MB and using Disc G

Here are the screen shots showing this process:

Macintosh HD:Users:danielkeller:Desktop:Screen Shot 2015-07-31 at 7.09.55 AM.png

Macintosh HD:Users:danielkeller:Desktop:Screen Shot 2015-07-31 at 7.10.09 AM.png

Macintosh HD:Users:danielkeller:Desktop:Screen Shot 2015-07-31 at 7.10.20 AM.png

Macintosh HD:Users:danielkeller:Desktop:Screen Shot 2015-07-31 at 7.00.52 AM.png

Macintosh HD:Users:danielkeller:Desktop:Screen Shot 2015-07-31 at 7.03.15 AM.png

Macintosh HD:Users:danielkeller:Desktop:Screen Shot 2015-07-31 at 7.03.44 AM.png

Macintosh HD:Users:danielkeller:Desktop:Screen Shot 2015-07-31 at 7.13.51 AM.png

Macintosh HD:Users:danielkeller:Desktop:Screen Shot 2015-07-31 at 7.03.57 AM.png


Question 2:

Two components of Genericwafe2.0 are causing performance issues on a Windows 7 PC One Genencware2.0 component is currently not responding and needs to be disabled upon reboot. To prevent further performance issues ensure both components are no longer running upon reboot without making any other changes to the current system or without deleting registry keys or shortcuts.

Instructions: When you have completed the simulation, please select the done button to submit your answer.

Correct Answer: Please review for detailed answer.

Please check the below images for detailed steps to do:


Question 3:

You need to configure your mobile device to send and receive electronic messages from your company. Your mobile device must be able to truly synchronize the message state with your desktop so that when a message is read on your desktop it is marked as read on your mobile device These are the proper parameters:

Email address [email protected] com

Password [email protected]

Pop techies com Port 110 Security. None

IMAP techies com Port 993 Security SSL

Smtp.techies.com Port 465 Security: TLS

Company SSID Techies

Security WPA2

Passphrase [email protected]

SSID is not broadcasted

Instructions You are not authorized to use the Company\’s WLAN The outgoing server does not require login credentials When you have completed the simulation, please select the done button to submit your answer.

Correct Answer: Please review explanation for detailed answer.

Explanation/Reference:

Settings are configured exactly as solution below:


Question 4:

A Windows 7 machine appears to have a failure. Every time it is rebooted, the message “BOOTMGR is missing” appears. You have previously inserted a Windows 7 installation DVD into the DVD-ROM. Please repair this failure without

overwriting the customers\’ local user profiles.

Instructions:

Launch the simulation to repair the failure

Type Help in command line to show list of available commands When you have completed the simulation, please select the done button.

Correct Answer: Please review for detailed answer.

Please check the below images for detailed steps to do:


Question 5:

Drag and drop the following Windows 7 versions in order according to their feature-sets, from MOST to LEAST.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 6:

Drag and drop the following Windows Versions to the correct feature on which they are found. Windows Versions may be used more than once.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 7:

You have been tasked with setting up a new executive\’s laptop on his home network. After an investigation, you find that his home network is wired and has the following settings:

IP range is 10.10.10.0

Netmask is 255.255.255.0

Default gateway is 10.10.10.1

Additionally, the router\’s address is used as the primary DNS server and WINS is not in use.

Please configure the laptop with an IP address of 10.10.10.15, ensuring that the laptop will still work when plugged into the switch at the office, which is configured for DHCP. Do not make any other unnecessary configurations to the laptop.

Instructions: Keyboard shortcuts are not available. When you have completed the simulation, please select the done button to submit your answer.

Correct Answer: Review the for all details.

Right click in Local Area Network and double click on the IPv4 settings:

Macintosh HD:Users:danielkeller:Desktop:Screen Shot 2015-07-31 at 6.50.23 AM.png Choose Alternate Configuration Tab and enter as follows:

Macintosh HD:Users:danielkeller:Desktop:Screen Shot 2015-07-31 at 6.54.23 AM.png


Question 8:

The network administrator has changed the IP address of ComputerA from 192.168.1.20 to 10.10.10.20 and now Jane, a user, is unable to connect to file shares on ComputerA from ComputerB using the computer name.

Instructions:

Using the available tools, resolve the connectivity issues. When you have completed the simulation, please select the done button

to submit your answer.

Correct Answer: Review the for all details.

Need to flush the DNS cache on Computer B:

Macintosh HD:Users:danielkeller:Desktop:Screen Shot 2015-07-31 at 7.17.54 AM.png


Question 9:

A client states that there are too many programs automatically starting when Windows boots. Which of the following tools would BEST be used to disable some programs from automatically starting when the computer is booted?

A. Performance Monitor

B. Fixboot

C. MSCONFIG

D. FIXMBR

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Ann, a customer, has a wired router that connects to the Internet without any issue, but does not provide any other network services. When users connect PCs to the router, they cannot access the Internet or any other network resources.

Which of the following should Ann do to connect the PCs to the Internet?

A. Change the gateway address on the wired router

B. Set the DNS to an external public source on the PCs

C. Remove the PCs from the MAC filter list in the wired router

D. Change the switch port duplex setting from half to full

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which Windows 7 command can stop a single process from the command-line?

A. Taskkill

B. Shutdown

C. Tasklist

D. DEL

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which of the following is required in order to receive push email notifications on a mobile device?

A. IMAP

B. POP3

C. ActiveSync

D. SMTP

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

At the airport the company sales employees work on their laptops to submit financial proposals. Which of the following would mitigate shoulder surfing?

A. Firewalls

B. The use of VPNs

C. Privacy filters

D. RSA key fobs

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which of the following features is a characteristic associated to that of Android-based smartphones?

A. Apple App Store

B. Closed source SDK

C. Proprietary data cable connector

D. Open source SDK

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

A user states they are hearing a clicking noise coming from the computer. There is a message on the screen saying no operating system found, and the computer then attempts to boot from PXE. Which of the following should the technician perform?

A. Remove the floppy disk

B. Replace the hard drive

C. Replace the NIC

D. Replace the DVD-Rom

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

Which underlying protocol(s) does LDP utilize to communicate with LDP Peers?

A. UDP and TCP

B. UDP only

C. LDP uses IP Protocol 646 and does not rely on UDP or TCP

D. TCP only

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Which command is used to undo a change after issuing a commit command?

A. router# rollback configuration to -1

B. router(config# commit undo

C. router(config)# commit rollback

D. router# rollback configuration last 1

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

What is the TRACE command?

A. A packet tracer showing the path of a packet from ingress to egress in the router.

B. The replacement for TraceRoute in IOS-XR.

C. A form of always-on debugging available for a subset of commands.

D. Exactly the same as the debug command, must be explicitly turned on.

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Which mode will shut down a process?

A. EXEC

B. ADMIN

C. CONFIG

D. ADMIN-CONFIG

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

One of your peers show in the SHOW BGP VPNV4 UNICAST SUMMARY output

What is the cause of this?

A. The label value ranges are mismatched.

B. The peer has no prefixes with a Route-Target that the local router is importing.

C. The BGP prefixes between the routers have not fully converged and will correct itself in time.

D. The peer router is not configured to use the VPNv4 address-family for this connection.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

What BGP address-families are used between the ASBRs in the different AS\’es in an IPv4 Option C Layer-3 VPN solution?

A. VPNv4 Unicast Only

B. IPv4 Umcast and VPNv4 Unicast

C. IPv4 Labeled-Unicast only

D. IPv4 Unicast and IPv4 Labeled-Unicast

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

What priority values do the WDSYSMON Ticker and Watcher threads utilize?

A. Ticker 11, Watcher 254

B. Ticker 10, Watcher 63

C. Ticker 11, Watcher 63

D. Ticker 10, Watcher 254

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Which command is similar to the Unix TOP command to display process utilization information?

A. show

B. trace processes

C. show process dynamic

D. monitor processes

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Which command is used to redistribute BGP into EIGRP for a Layer 3 VPN customer?

A. router(config-eigrp-af)# redistribute bgp 65001

B. router(config-eigrp-vrf-af)# redistribute bgp 65001

C. rouur(config-eigrp-vrf)# redistribute bgp 65001

D. router(config-eigrp)# redistribute bgp 65001

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

When are core dump files created by the system?

A. There are too many critical events.

B. There are too many duplicate messages.

C. The commit database is full.

D. A process fails or terminates abnormally.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

What information is unchanged after a process restart?

A. Job ID

B. Last Started

C. Respawn Count

D. Process ID

Correct Answer: A

Note that ospf process is given a Job ID (JID), which is 250. This never changes on a running router and generally on a particular version of Cisco IOS XR. Within the ospf process there are five threads each with their own Thread ID (TID). Listed is the stack space for each thread, the priority of each thread and its state.


Question 12:

Which protocol is a PE to CE routing protocol?

A. ODR

B. LDP

C. RIPv1

D. eBGP

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

What is the default MP-BGP address-family on IOS-XR?

A. IPv6 unicast

B. There is no default address-family

C. IPv4 unicast

D. VPNv4

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Which VRFs must be configured on the ASBRs between the two AS\’es in an Option B Layer-3 VPN solution?

A. The VRFs shared between the two AS\’es plus one VRF representing each AS.

B. The VRFs shared between the two AS\’es.

C. The VRFs shared between the two AS\’es plus one shared VRF.

D. The VRFs do not need to be configured on the ASBRs.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which command is used to configure an interface that does not currently exist in the system?

A. interface preconfigure

B. preconfigure interface

C. interface vrf preconfig

D. controller preconfigure

Correct Answer: A


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Given the cashflows below, which of the following is correct?

A. The project pays back in year 4 of the project.

B. The project does not pay back within the four year period.

C. The project pays back in year 2 of the project.

D. The project pays back in year 3 of the project.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

On a class diagram, what do the multiplicities represent?

A. The number of attributes held within each class.

B. The minimum and maximum number of operations in each class.

C. The minimum and maximum number of objects in each class.

D. The business rules for an association between two classes.

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

During which stage of the Business Analysis Process Model would a gap analysis be carried out?

A. Define requirements.

B. Analyse needs.

C. Evaluate the options.

D. Investigate situation.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

In a particular organisation it is common practice to call all managers by their first name. It is part of the culture of the organisation. Newcomers are quickly corrected if they do not follow this informal approach. What would knowing about this convention be classified as in Requirements Engineering?

A. Explicit individual knowledge.

B. Tacit individual knowledge.

C. Explicit corporate knowledge.

D. Tacit corporate knowledge.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

An analyst is defining the requirements for an online booking system and wishes to show the business managers the look and feel of the system in order to elicit usability requirements. What investigation technique should the analyst use?

A. Workshops.

B. Interviewing.

C. Ethnographic study

D. Prototyping.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. The IRR of every project is based on it achieving a Net Present Value of zero.

B. It is preferable for the calculated IRR of a project to be below bank interest rates,

C. Discounted cash flows do not usually take into account the time value of money.

D. When comparing two projects, the one with the lower NPV should be preferred.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Which of the following BEST describes an ethnographic study?

A. A study which uses prototype graphical screens to demonstrate a user requirement.

B. A study of users in their workplace undertaking representative simulated scenarios.

C. A study where the analyst spends an extended period of time in the target environment.

D. A study which ensures that the needs of a wide range of ethnic groups are considered.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Which stage of the Requirements Engineering process is concerned with tracking requirements from inception to implementation?

A. Requirements documentation

B. Requirements management

C. Requirements validation.

D. Requirements analysis.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

An analyst has discovered that a company wishes to hold information about departments and employees. A department may have many employees in it, but each employee can, at any one time, only work in one department. There is no requirement to store historical information. However, there are currently eight departments and over one hundred employees. How would this relationship be shown on an Entity Relationship diagram?

A. As (8..100) at the Department end of the relationship.

B. As a many-to-many between Department and Employee.

C. As a one-to-one between Department and Employee.

D. As a one-to-many between Department and Employee.

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

When running workshops it is useful to have someone with a role that includes specific responsibility for keeping attendees focused on achieving the objective of the workshop. Which of the following terms describes this role?

A. The arbitrator.

B. The scribe.

C. The stakeholder.

D. The facilitator.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

In which of the following circumstances do buyers have high bargaining power?

A. When available sources of supply are available and easy to find.

B. When the cost of a product or service is low.

C. When switching costs are high.

D. When the supplier brand is powerful.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

A convenience food manufacturer has undertaken a strategic analysis study and has identified a threat from groups lobbying against the use of packaging for food products. Which of the PESTLE categories would have helped highlight this threat?

A. Legal.

B. Environmental.

C. Technological.

D. Economic.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Which of the following is a primary activity in the value chain?

A. Human Resources (HR).

B. Procurement.

C. Information Technology (IT).

D. Marketing and Sales.

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

The Boston Box may be used to analyse the portfolio of businesses owned by an organisation. Which of the following animals does it use in its term for businesses that have low market share in a market with low growth?

A. Cow.

B. Cat.

C. Dog.

D. Goat.

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

The V model is an example of which of the following?

A. A business analysis process model.

B. A systems development lifecycle.

C. A concerns-based adoption model.

D. A soft systems methodology.

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

To ensure SELinux open after the boot:

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation

Explanation/Reference:

vim /etc/sysconfig/selinux

selinux=enforcing

setenforce 1

getenforce


Question 2:

Open system kernel forwarding packets function:

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation

Explanation/Reference:

vim /etc/sysctl.conf

net.ipv4.ip_forward = 1

sysctl ‐w (Effective immediately)

The following commands should executed without sysctl.conf option:

sysctl ‐a |grep net.ipv4

sysctl ‐P net.ipv4.ip_forward = 1

sysctl ‐w


Question 3:

Configure FTP access as follows:

Download from catalog: / var / ftp / pub using anonymous is allowed

Clients within t3gg.com should NOT have access to FTP on your system

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation

Explanation/Reference:

yum install ‐y vsftpd

chkconfig vsftpd on

services vsftpd start

Deny: uninstall hosts.deny or use iptables

vim /etc/hosts.deny

vsftpd: 172.25.0.0/16

iptables ‐A INPUT ‐s 172.25.0.0/16 ‐p tcp ‐dport 20:21 ‐j REJECT

services iptables save


Question 4:

Mount /root/cdrom.iso under /opt/data, and take effect automatically at boot‐start

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation

Explanation/Reference:

cd /opt/

mkdir data

mount ‐t iso9660 ‐o loop /root/cdrom.iso /opt/data

vim /etc/fstab

/root/cdrom.iso /opt/data iso9660 defaults,loop 0 0


Question 5:

Configure NFS server to share /common directory with domain30.example.com.

Authenticate the clients devices have the access to it as root user.

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation

Explanation/Reference:

yum install ‐y nfs

chkconfig nfs on

chkconfig rpcbind on

vim /etc/exports

/common 172.24.30.0/255.255.255.0 (rw,no_root_squash)

showmount ‐e 172.16.30.5

mount ‐t nfs 172.16.30.5:/common /mnt


Question 6:

Configure an email server domian30.example.com, and it requests to send and receive emails from the local server or the user harry can send or receive emails from network. The email of user harry is /var/spool/mail/harry. Please note: the

DNS server has already been MX record.

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation

Explanation/Reference:

yum install ‐y postfix

chkconfig postfix on

vim /etc/postfix/main.cf

inet_interfaces = all

mydestination = example.com, domain30.example.com, localhost

mynetworks = 172.16.30.0/24, 127.0.0.1/8

services postfix restart

Test:

netstat ‐tulnp |grep 25

hostname

echo hello |mail ‐s “est”[email protected]

cat /var/spool/mai/harry


Question 7:

Configure Kernel parameters rhelblq=1 and enable /proc/cmdline to verify your Kernel parameters.

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Vim /etc/grub.conf

Write the end of the kernel line

To see after restart

cat /proc/cmdline


Question 8:

Configure cron as follow:

Clients tom should NOT have access to cron

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation

Explanation/Reference:

useradd tom

vim /etc/cron.deny

tom

Effective immediately save and exit.


Question 9:

Please visit iscsi shared storage, storage server address is 172.24.30.100, ceded 1500M space, formatted with the ext3 file system, mount / mnt / data, and boot automatically mount.

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation

Explanation/Reference:

yum install ‐y iscsi*

chkconfig iscsid on

chkconfig iscsi on

iscsiadm ‐m discovery ‐t st ‐p 172.24.30.100:3260

iscsiadm ‐m node ‐T iqn.2011 ‐p 172.24.30.100 ‐|

service iscsi restart

fdisk ‐|

fdisk /dev/sda

partx ‐a /dev/sda

partx ‐a /dev/sda

mkfs.ext3 /dev/sad1

yum ‐y install tree

cd /var/lib/iscsi

tree . view iqn

cd /mnt

mkdir data

blkid /dev/sda1 (View UUID, UUID mount)

vim /etc/fstab

UUID=XXX /mnt/data ext3 default, _netdev 0 0

mount ‐a


Question 10:

Configuring the NFS service that will /mnt /storage directory with read‐only shared to the example.com domain user when the client as the root user will also have access to the root directory permissions to read‐only shared to cracker.org

domain users.

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation

Explanation/Reference:

# vim /etc/exports

/mnt/storage *.example.com(ro,sync,no_root_squash)

/mnt/storage *.cracker.org(ro,sync)


Question 11:

Samba configuration requirements are as follows:

1. The Working Group called RHCE

2. Types of user authentication

3. Shared / mnt / storage directory share name for the share

4. The shared directory allows user1 and user2 user has write permissions to other users are read‐only, if you need password are redhat

5. only allows the user to access the shared directory domain example.com

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation

Explanation/Reference:

# yum install ‐y samba

# vim /etc/samba/smb.conf

[global]

workgroup = RHCE

security = user

[share]

path = /mnt/storage

write list = user1 user2

hosts allow = .example.com

# ( echo redhat ; echo redhat ) | smbpasswd ‐s ‐a user1

# ( echo redhat ; echo redhat ) | smbpasswd ‐s ‐a user2

# service smb start; chkconfig smb on


Question 12:

Establish vsftp server, so that only allow user1 user access, and cannot jump out of home directories only allow users to upload and download example domain, allowing only example domains can be accessed.

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation

Explanation/Reference:

# yum ‐y install vsftpd

# vim /etc/vsftpd/vsftpd.conf

userlist_deny=NO

userlist_file=/etc/vsftpd/vsftpd.user_list

chroot_list_enable=YES

chroot_list_file= /etc/vsftpd/vsftpd.chroot_list

anon_upload_enable=YES

anonymous_enable=YES

# mkdir ‐p /var/ftp/incoming; chmod 777 /var/ftp/incoming

# chcon ‐t public_content_rw_t /var/ftp/incoming

# setsebool ‐P allow_ftpd_anon_write 1

# setsebool ‐P ftp_home_dir 1

# vim /etc/vsftpd/vsftpd.user_list

user1

# vim /etc/vsftpd/vsftpd.chroot_list

user1

# service vsftpd start; chkconfig vsftpd on

# vim /etc/hosts.deny

vsftpd: ALL EXCEPT .example.com


Question 13:

Lab 2

Turn on your kernel to forward packets function.

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation

Explanation/Reference:


Question 14:

Lab 5

Configure the SMTP mail server, you can normally receive mail for example.com domain name, host ‐based machine supports mail aliases function, that is sent to the admin e ‐mail sent to natasha.

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation

Explanation/Reference:


Question 15:

Lab 10

Boot iso file to automatically mount /boot to /mnt/cdrom.

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation

Explanation/Reference:


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Question 1:

Which of the following Statements about macros is true? (select all that apply)

A. Arguments are defined at execution time.

B. Arguments are defined when the macro is created.

C. Argument values are used to resolve the search string at execution time.

D. Argument values are used to resolve the search string when the macro is created.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 2:

What is required for a macro to accept three arguments?

A. The macro\’s name ends with (3).

B. The macro\’s name starts with (3).

C. The macro\’s argument count setting is 3 or more.

D. Nothing, all macros can accept any number of arguments.

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Which of the following statements describes POST workflow actions?

A. POST workflow actions are always encrypted.

B. POST workflow actions cannot use field values in their URI.

C. POST workflow actions cannot be created on custom sourcetypes.

D. POST workflow actions can open a web page in either the same window or a new window.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Which of the following searches show a valid use of macro? (Select all that apply)

A. index=main source=mySource oldField=* |\’makeMyField(oldField)\’| table _time newField

B. index=main source=mySource oldField=* | stats if(\’makeMyField(oldField)\’) | table _time newField

C. index=main source=mySource oldField=* | eval newField=\’makeMyField(oldField)\’| table _time newField

D. index=main source=mySource oldField=* | “\’newField(\’makeMyField(oldField)\’)\'” | table _time newField

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://answers.splunk.com/answers/574643/field-showing-an-additional-and-not-visible-value- 1.html


Question 5:

Which of the following workflow actions can be executed from search results? (select all that apply)

A. GET

B. POST

C. LOOKUP

D. Search

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 6:

Which of the following is the correct way to use the data model command to search field in the data model within the web dataset?

A. | datamodel web search | filed web *

B. | Search datamodel web web | filed web*

C. | datamodel web web field | search web*

D. Datamodel=web | search web | filed web*

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which of the following searches will return events contains a tag name Privileged?

A. Tag= Priv

B. Tag= Priv*

C. Tag= Priv*

D. Tag= Privileged

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/PCI/4.1.0/Install/PrivilegedUserActivity


Question 8:

Which of the following statements describes this search? sourcetype=access_combined I transaction JSESSIONID | timechart avg (duration)

A. This is a valid search and will display a timechart of the average duration, of each transaction event.

B. This is a valid search and will display a stats table showing the maximum pause among transactions.

C. No results will be returned because the transaction command must include the startswith and endswith options.

D. No results will be returned because the transaction command must be the last command used in the search pipeline.

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Calculated fields can be based on which of the following?

A. Tags

B. Extracted fields

C. Output fields for a lookup

D. Fields generated from a search string

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.3/Knowledge/definecalcfields


Question 10:

Based on the macro definition shown below, what is the correct way to execute the macro in a search string?

A. Convert_sales (euro, , 79)”

B. Convert_sales (euro, , .79)

C. Convert_sales ($euro,$$,s79$

D. Convert_sales ($euro, $$,S,79$)

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.3/Knowledge/Usesearchmacros


Question 11:

When multiple event types with different color values are assigned to the same event, what determines the color displayed for the events?

A. Rank

B. Weight

C. Priority

D. Precedence

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/SplunkCloud/8.0.2003/Knowledge/Defineeventtypes


Question 12:

Which of the following statements describes the command below (select all that apply) Sourcetype=access_combined | transaction JSESSIONID

A. An additional filed named maxspan is created.

B. An additional field named duration is created.

C. An additional field named eventcount is created.

D. Events with the same JSESSIONID will be grouped together into a single event.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 13:

Which of the following can be used with the eval command tostring function (select all that apply)

A. `\’hex\’\’

B. `\’commas\’\’

C. `\’Decimal\’\’

D. `\’duration\’\’

Correct Answer: ABD

Reference: https://splunkonbigdata.com/2018/10/27/usage-of-splunk-eval-function-tostring/


Question 14:

Which of the following statements about tags is true?

A. Tags are case insensitive.

B. Tags are created at index time.

C. Tags can make your data more understandable.

D. Tags are searched by using the syntax tag: :

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which of the following statements about data models and pivot are true? (select all that apply)

A. They are both knowledge objects.

B. Data models are created out of datasets called pivots.

C. Pivot requires users to input SPL searches on data models.

D. Pivot allows the creation of data visualizations that present different aspects of a data model.

Correct Answer: BD


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Question 1:

You have to recommend a solution to help the students solve their problem regarding the historical sources.

The problem must be solved as quickly as possible.

What should you recommend?

This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.

A. Modify the language settings on the students\’ desktop or laptop computers.

B. Email the source text to a language teacher at the school.

C. Use an Internet-based translation tool.

D. Use a social networking site to connect with students in other countries and upload the text to the social networking site.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

You teach a class of 20 students. Your classroom contains six computers.

You run an activity that is carried out mostly on paper.

Before the end of the activity, the students will require access to the computers.

Which lesson structure should provide the best learning experience for the students?

A. Create several different activities that require the computers at different stages during the lesson.

B. Execute the computer-based portion of the activity as a class demonstration.

C. Modify the tasks of the lesson so that only some of the students require access to the computers.

D. Have all of the students perform the same activity and instruct the students to take turns using the computers.

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

You are a teacher at a secondary school. You work closely with the school administration.

A group of parents questions the large sum of money that the school invests in Information and Communication Technology (ICT) resources.

You are requested to prepare a response on behalf of the school.

On which argument will you base your response?

A. Modern economies increasingly require a workforce that has good typing skills, so the school must try to incorporate computers into all its activities.

B. Modern economies are increasingly based on knowledge and information, so students must learn the skills required to handle information.

C. The business sector in modern economies increasingly expects schools to produce students who are qualified in financial knowledge.

D. Modern economies increasingly depend on the growth of the computer manufacturing industry, an economic sector that schools must support.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

You plan to have an expert speaker address the students about a recent historical event.

Which two possible ICT resources should you recommend that the students use to create an accurate record of the speaker\’s statements? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.

A. the digital voice recorder

B. the LMS

C. an Internet connection

D. a digital camera

E. a video camera

F. the flatbed scanner

G. the printers

Correct Answer: AE


Question 5:

You are requested to write the proposal to qualify for the sponsorship.

Which statement best describes the ICT Competency Framework for Teachers (ICT-CFT) policygoalthat is met by implementing the new ICT resources?

This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.

A. The new ICT resources helpthe teachers design activities that enable the students to become collaborative, problem-solving learners.

B. The new ICT resources allow the teachers to update their ICT skills and to meet the professional development objectives.

C. The new ICT resources allow the teachers to create virtual activities that can be self-administered by the students without any teacher involvement.

D. The new ICT resources allow the teachers to create problem-solving activities that the students can perform in a virtual environment.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

The teachers are concerned that their lack of experience with video conferencing will hinder their ability to achieve the planned lesson.

What advice should you provide to the teachers to help them achieve the planned lesson?

This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.

A. Tell them that video conferencing is a simple process and not to worry.

B. Start by using technology that they are most familiar with.

C. Teach students the benefits of video conferencing before the lesson.

D. Test the video conferencing equipment before the lesson.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

How does giving each student their own laptop enhance collaborative learning?

This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.

A. The students can digitally share their work and their ideas.

B. The students can connect with their peers outside of the classroom without being interrupted by the teachers.

C. The students will feel free to exchange their views with one another anonymously during lessons.

D. The students can work together without any guidance from a teacher.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

You create your first lesson that incorporates the use of the students\’ laptops.

You want to evaluate the effectiveness of the use of laptops during the lesson.

How do you determine effectiveness after one lesson?

This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.

A. Students actively engage in the lesson.

B. Students are able to access curriculum content.

C. Student scores improve on a test given at the end of the lesson.

D. Students give feedback that they enjoyed using laptops during the lesson.

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

You want to motivatethe school to invest in ICT resources. The reason must be based on the ICT Competency Framework for Teachers (ICT-CFT).

Which argument should you use?

This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.

A. to become the best equipped school in your region.

B. to improve local economic conditions.

C. to give the students in your school access to a range of resources and learning experiences.

D. to meet the expectations of the students and the parents.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

The school plans to deploy six of the planned laptops in each classroom.

You were asked to recommend a solution that enables each student to use the laptops as part of a group project.

What should you recommend?

This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.

A. Make your classroom available to students at lunchtime and after school.

B. Have all the groupsfirst plan their project, and then book timeslots for computer use.

C. Assign one computer to each group.

D. Let students from any group use any of the computers as needed.

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

You are teaching a biology class on the human nervous system.

One of the students asks a question that is beyond your knowledge.

Based on the current ICT resources in the classroom, which resource should you use to answer the question as quickly as possible during the lesson?

This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.

A. Email

B. a search engine

C. a blog

D. the online educators\’ community

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

You plan to ask the students to use a search engine during the persuasive writing lesson.

Which instructions or advice should you provide to the students?

This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.

A. Search for organizations that use persuasive writing.

B. Use a variety of search engines.

C. Use a variety of Web browsers.

D. The first search result will contain the information you seek.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

You want to improve the students\’ research skills by using ICT resources. The solution must help meet the school\’s organizational goals.

What should you do?

This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.

A. Tell the students to search for information on the Internet.

B. Give the students a list of Internet links to sites about acid rain.

C. Give the students printed Web pages about acid rain.

D. Work with the students to create a list of search terms.

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

You have used Information and Communication Technology (ICT) successfully in the classroom for several years.

A new teacher at the school says that she has had little opportunity to use ICT in the classroom. She wants to make use of the computer lab in her teaching.

What advice would you give her?

A. Ensure that the planned activities are easy for the students.

B. Ensure that the planned activities are fun for the students.

C. Ensure that the planned activities are suitable for the learning objectives.

D. Ensure that the students understand how ICT will be used to complete their activities.

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

At the beginning of the second mathematics lesson, you want to engage students and remind them of the learning objectives.

What should you use?

This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.

A. a presentation that models the learning outcome

B. an audio recording that defines symmetry

C. a graphics application that displays symmetrical objects

D. a printed handout that contains an outline of the learning objectives

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

Which EMC NetWorker software component is responsible for storing metadata in the form of hash IDs for a deduplication backup?

A. Storage node

B. NetWorker client

C. Deduplication node

D. NetWorker server

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Click the Calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.

In an EMC NetWorker environment, the customer is backing up 7.5 TB per day. The 7.5 TB is comprised of 750 million files. According to EMC best practices, approximately how large will the Client File Index (CFI) be?

A. 167 GB

B. 70 GB

C. 209 GB

D. 307 GB

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Click the Calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.

In an EMC NetWorker environment, the customer is backing up 500 GB per day. The 500 GB is comprised of 35,000 very large files. According to EMC best practices, approximately how large will the Client File Index (CFI) be?

A. 6 MB

B. 4 MB

C. 8 MB

D. 10 MB

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

When adding an EMC NetWorker server\’s name into the /nsr/res/servers file of a client, which service must be restarted on the client for the change to take effect?

A. nsrexecd

B. nsrd

C. nsrindexd

D. nsrdb

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

A customer has just upgraded their EMC NetWorker server. The upgrade included a new IP address and hostname.

After updating the configuration file on the client, which service should be restarted in order for the change to be recognized?

A. nsrdb

B. nsrexecd

C. nsrd

D. nsrindexd

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

What is the recommended media type for the device that stores the metadata in the form of hash IDs for EMC NetWorker deduplication backups?

A. adv_file

B. file

C. Tape

D. Atmos COS

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

You have an EMC NetWorker server with one storage node. There is an autoloader with four tape drives. Two drives each are dedicated to the server and storage node. A new Celerra has been added to the network with 500 GB of data. What must be done to back up the data on the Celerra?

A. Configure a client for the Celerra to use DSA and back up its data to either the NetWorker server or storage node.

B. Create a storage node on the Celerra and select NDMP in the “type of storage node” field.

C. Configure a device on the NetWorker server as an NDMP device and back up the Celerra to this device.

D. Create an NDMP backup pool and add this pool to a save group with other clients.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Which directory holds the tracking information of each file backed up by the client “tuba” on EMC NetWorker server “soprano”?

A. /nsr/index/tuba/db6

B. /nsr/tuba/db6

C. /nsr/index/soprano/db6

D. /nsr/soprano/db6

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which Microsoft VSS component gathers information to properly save applications, services, or files in a filesystem?

A. Provider

B. Requestor

C. Writer

D. Interceptor

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

A customer has an Oracle 11g database running on a RAC cluster with ASM. It occupies approximately 5 TB on a Symmetrix DMX. They have an RTO of four hours. They intend to implement PowerSnap with EMC NetWorker version 7.6 to back up the BCVs using RMAN scripts and a proxy host.

What prevents this implementation from being successful?

A. PowerSnap is not supported on Oracle 11g with EMC NetWorker 7.6.

B. BCVs cannot be mounted to a proxy host with a RAC cluster.

C. RTO of four hours cannot be accomplished.

D. ASM does not support proxy hosts.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

What is the backup command specified in the EMC NetWorker client resource for EMC Centera backups?

A. nsrndmp_save

B. savepnpc

C. nsrdasv

D. nsrsnap_vss_save.exe

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

You have been tasked to protect a newly configured Microsoft SQL server residing within a two-node cluster.

The following requirements must be met:

Backups must be performed daily.

All data must be transmitted over the LAN.

Hot backup must be performed automatically regardless of which node the virtual server resides on at the time of backup.

What software is required to achieve this?

A. NetWorker Module for Microsoft Applications and SnapImage

B. NetWorker PowerSnap Module only

C. NetWorker Module for SQL only

D. NetWorker Module for SQL and PowerSnap

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

What is a characteristic of cloud volumes in EMC NetWorker?

A. Infinitely appendable

B. Recyclable

C. Space cannot be reclaimed.

D. Data cannot be compressed or encrypted.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

What is a characteristic of VCB backups in EMC NetWorker?

A. Requires a NetWorker client on each virtual machine

B. Requires a storage node on the VCB backup proxy

C. Supports image and file-based backups

D. Does not support LAN-free backup

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

What describes the use of Tape Stacking with the embedded storage node on an EMC Disk Library (EDL)?

A. Backups are created on small virtual tapes and then cloned to one large tape.

B. Backups are created on large virtual tapes and then cloned to several small tapes.

C. Backups are stacked in a buffer area and then written to an offsite EDL at a later time.

D. Backups are stacked in a buffer area and then written to a local EDL at a later time.

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Which is a term under ASC 606 or IFRS 15?

A. transaction price

B. promise detail

C. initial performance event

D. requires complete

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://cloud.oracle.com/_downloads/Datasheet_Financials_3_RevenueMgmt/Revenue_M anagement_Datasheet.pdf


Question 2:

A corporation uses a pricing policy that considers deal size to calculate price per unit for its products. For example:

Which Price Band Segment Label would be appropriate to use in this case?

A. Amount Band

B. Deal Size Band

C. Set Band

D. Quantity Band

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which statement Is True regarding the Customer Contract Source Data Import Template?

A. It is a predefined Excel FBDI template.

B. It is a predefined Java FBDI template.

C. It Is a predefined HTML FBDI template.

D. It is a custom template that you are required to build.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.google.com/url?sa=tandrct=jandq=andesrc=sandsource=webandcd=1andcad=rjaanduact=8andv ed=2ahUKEwjQrM7ImKzdAhUHxYUKHbYLBpAQFjAAegQIBBACandurl=http://w ww.oracle.com /webfolder/technetwork/docs% 2Ffbdi- r11/fbdi/xlsm% 2FRevenueDataImportTemplate.xlsmandusg=AOvVaw2kKXNI1OQEF 9K6p7rBAEwz


Question 4:

Which method is used to allocate total transaction price across performance obligations in Revenue Management?

A. Inverted Allocation Method

B. Residual Allocation Method

C. Relative Allocation Method

D. Two Step Allocation Method

E. Alternative Allocation Method

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

What is a Standalone Selling Price (SSP)?

A. the average of your bundled price

B. the sum of the SSPs of the components

C. the list price

D. the price you would use if you sold to a customer separately

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

What should E-Business Suite General Ledger and Oracle Cloud General Ledger do as part of the transition to the new standard strategy under ASC 606 and IFRS 15?

A. Create a reporting ledger.

B. Create a new primary ledger.

C. Create a secondary ledger.

D. Using their existing primary ledger.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

After defining a pricing dimension structure for a customer, you must define a pricing dimension structure instance.

Which two attributes on the structure instance are inherited from the structure definition?

A. whether Dynamic Combination Creation Allowed is enabled

B. the shape: Same number of segments and order

C. the Displayed option

D. the value sets

E. the Query Required option

Correct Answer: AB


Question 8:

Which is the following is NOT a feature of personalization

A. Selecting default language

B. Changing text font

C. Saving searches

D. Configuring table columns

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Which three tasks can be performed In the Revenue Management Work Area?

A. Edit Contract Identification Rules.

B. Review Observed Standalone Selling Prices.

C. Manage contracts in “Pending Review” status.

D. Manage contracts in “Pending Allocation” status.

E. Review Performance Satisfaction Plans.

F. Review Revenue Price Profiles.

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 10:

The contract Promised Details tabs includes Selling Amount, Allocated Amount, Revenue Recognized, and Bill…….

What is the difference between Selling Amount and Allocated Amount?

A. The Selling Amount is calculated based on Standalone Selling Prices and is used for the Revenue Recognition amount. The Allocated Amount is based on the source document sales lines amounts and is ultimately used to tie back to your source document upload.

B. The Selling Amount is calculated based on the source document sales lines amounts and is used to tie back to your source document upload. The Allocated Amount is based on Standalone Selling Price and is ultimately used for the Revenue Recognition amount.

C. The Selling Amount is calculated based on Standalone Selling Prices and is used to tie back to your SSP upload or calculation. The Allocated Amount is based on the Billed amount and is ultimately used for the Revenue Recognition amount.

D. The Selling Amount is calculated based on the source document sales lines amount and is used for the Revenue Recognition amount. The Allocated Amount is based on the Billed Amount and Is used to tie back to your Billing source document upload.

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

A furniture store is running a promotion for a toaster with the purchase of a sofa or chair set. Data about the free toaster is not captured in any upstream application. How should you handle this scenario In Revenue Management?

A. Ignore the performance obligation for the toaster because it was free of cost to the customer.

B. Define an Implied Performance Obligation Template to automatically add a performance obligation for the toaster.

C. Create the performance obligation for the toaster manually.

D. Define an adhoc rule in the Revenue Price Profile to include the toaster.

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

What is the correct match sequence of the descriptions A, B and C against the titles?

A. B, C, A

B. A, C, B

C. C, B, A

D. C, A, B

E. A, B, C

F. B, A, C

Correct Answer: F


Question 13:

The Contracts Requiring Attention user Interface has three tabs: Pending Review, Pending Allocation, and Pending Revenue Recognition.

What would cause a contract to be In the Pending Review tab?

A. The total Transaction Price is over the user-defined threshold amount.

B. The contract is missing standalone selling prices at the promised detail level or at obligation level.

C. The contract is missing satisfaction events.

D. The contract is missing Billing data.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Accounting contracts with a total transaction price that is greater than the user-defined

threshold amount you defined in your system options. Contracts in this list are significant value contracts.

Reference:

https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/farel12/financialscs_gs/FAOFC/FAOFC2288367.htm#FAOF C2288367


Question 14:

Revenue Management creates journal entries from a contract In order to recognize revenue properly. Which three event types are used by Revenue Management to create these journal entries?

A. Performance Obligation Satisfied

B. Performance Obligation Billed

C. Initial Performance

D. Revenue Recognized

E. Standalone Selling Prices Allocated

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 15:

Which statement does NOT describe how revenue is handled under the latest standards under ASC 606 and IFRS 15?

A. You accrue for goods and services that you owe to customers because either you or they have relied on the contract. You no longer defer revenue.

B. You value the accrual at estimated consideration and it is a monetary debt.

C. You book the invoiced amount to the PandL when you meet the regulatory definition by Industry.

D. You calculate the liability at inception and book it when either party acts. An Act could be shipping or invoicing.

E. Liability is a list of goods and services you actually owe to the customers for future satisfaction via transfer.

Correct Answer: A