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Huawei Other Certification

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Question 1:

In order to ensure the reliable operation of the company\’s business, the construction of cloud data center, which aspects security design need to consider? (Multiple choice)

A. ACL

B. Firewall

C. Rights management

D. Anti-virus

Correct Answer: ABCD

In the cloud operation and maintenance management, the main security threats, which

Question 2:

What are the following included that Virtualization technologies are categorized by application scenario? (Multiple choice)

A. Full virtualization

B. Server virtualization

C. Desktop Virtualization

D. Paravirtualization

Correct Answer: BC

Question 3:

Huawei establishes a three-dimensional information security system for cloud computing from various aspects, such as the access client, access network, virtual platform, management.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A

Question 4:

In Huawei FusionSphere solutions, about the description of the virtual machine complete migration, which is correct?

A. Support VM migrations on virtualized and non-virtualized storage

B. Only support virtualized inter-store migration

C. You can not migrate across clusters

D. The graphics processor, USB devices have little effect on the migration

Correct Answer: B

Question 5:

Which of the following are the deployment modes of Cloud platform? (Multiple choice)

A. Desktop cloud

B. Public cloud

C. Private cloud

D. Hybrid cloud

Correct Answer: BCD

Question 6:

Which of the description about the FusionSphere OpenStack Neutron module is correct? (Multiple choice)

A. The neutron-server receives REST requests, authenticates keystones, interacts with the database, provides APIs for network objects and is deployed on the control node in A-A deployments.

B. neutron-openswitch-agent configuration openswitch flow table, providing a two-tier forwarding path; deployed in computing nodes.

C. neutron-vc-vswitch-agent docking VMWare, Neutron network model will be converted into VMWare network model to form a unified virtual network; proposed deployment in the control node.

D. neutron-metadata-agent for the virtual machine to access the metadata service to provide network channels; deployed in the network node.

Correct Answer: ABCD

Question 7:

When virtual machine network is obstructed on FusionCompute, which of the following is a possible fault point? (Multiple choice)

A. the PV driver is not installed on the virtual machine

B. The virtual machine does not have a network card

C. The network card is not enabled

D. Virtual machine firewalls Limit network traffic

Correct Answer: ABCD

Question 8:

What are the basic resource objects for Neutron components in Huawei FusionSphere OpenStack?

A. Security Group

B. Network

C. Subnet

D. Port

Correct Answer: BCD

Question 9:

What does the disaster recovery solutions of Huawei\’s cloud data center solutions contain?

A. Master and backup disaster

B. Double active capacity disaster

C. Two Places, three centers

D. Integrated disaster recovery

Correct Answer: ABC

Question 10:

Which of the following steps are involved in the migration process for Huawei FusionSphere services?

A. Migration assessment

B. Program design

C. Migration implementation

D. Migration and acceptance

Correct Answer: ABCD

Question 11:

Huawei ManageOne OperationCenter is the data center unified monitoring and management platform. Which of the following are the correct descriptions of the OperationCenter? (Multiple Choice)

A. When the management is FusionCompute of Huawei, FusionManager collects the object information, alarm information, capacity information of virtualization environment on the FusionCompute, and report to OperationCentere.

B. When the management is Huawei FusionSphere OpenStack, FusionManager collects the the alarm of virtualization environment on the FusionSphere OpenStack and report to OperationCentere.

C. When the management is VMware virtualized environment, the object information is collected by the VMware vCenter and escalated to the OperationsCenter through the FusionManager.

D. When the management is the physical equipment, use FusionManager as a monitoring management software, the FusionManager will report the physical equipment object, performance, alarm, event information to OperationCentere.

Correct Answer: ABC

Question 12:

Under the scenarios of Huawei FusionAccess application virtualization, which of the following way can the client through to get to the application list?

A. HDC returns to the application list according to the MAC address of the client

B. HDC returns to the application list according to the IP address of the client

C. HDC returns to the application list according to the client\’s user name D. HDC returns to the application list according to the user\’s user group name

Correct Answer: C

Question 13:

In FusionSphere solutions, VSA ManageDVS network is in the plane of the network with management can not be exchanged.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B

Question 14:

Which of the following network plane divisions and use does the FusionSphere cloud datacenter scenario involve? (Multiple choice)

A. Tunnel_Bearing

B. Internal_Base

C. External_OM

D. External_API

Correct Answer: BCD

Question 15:

Two VM communicate on FusionCompute, if the traffic transponders only through EVS, do not need to uplink to the physical switch, which of the following description is correct?

A. The source VM and the destination VM are on the same host; use different DVS, belong to different VLAN

B. The source VM and the destination VM are on the same host; use the same DVS, belong to the same VLAN

C. The source VM and the destination VM are on different hosts; use the same DVS, belong to the same

VLAN

D. The source VM and the destination VM are on different hosts; use the same DVS, belong to different VLAN

Correct Answer: B

Aruba ACMA

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Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit.

Network administrators need to set up a WLAN that uses WPA2 encryption and authenticates users with a preshared key (PSK) that is the same for all users. Administrators do not see where they should specify the option for the preshared

key.

What should the administrators do?

A. Click Personal in the slide bar.

B. Click the icon in the Authentication server section

C. Return to the first page in the wizard and select the guest option

D. Configure an L3 authentication profile after the WLAN wizard is complete

Correct Answer: A

Question 2:

What is a reason for a company to choose to deploy an Aruba 7024 Mobility Controller (MC) rather than an Aruba 7010 MC?

A. to support 802.11ac Aps rather than only 802.11n APs

B. to support more wireless users

C. to support more POE devices directly connected to the MC

D. to support a faster firewall throughput rate

Correct Answer: C

Question 3:

A company wants to provide wireless access for guests with their Aruba solution. Which configuration feature requires the customer to purchase PEFNG licenses?

A. redirection of guests to an external captive portal

B. provision of DHCP services to unauthenticated guests

C. addition of custom rules to control access for authenticated guests

D. customization of the internal captive portal login page

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit shows output from a Mobility Master (MM) dashboard. What is a valid reason for the administrator to click the akamai square under applications?

A. to create filter rules in order to control wireless user access to this application

B. to download a report about the usage of this application over time

C. to see more details about this application, such as a list of aggregated sessions

D. to see the break down for only roles, destinations, WLANs and devices that use this application

Correct Answer: D

Question 5:

What is a requirement for the Dashboard > Traffic Analysis window on the Aruba Mobility Master (MM) to show data?

A. Airmatch and ClientMatch must be enabled.

B. The solution must have active PEFNG licenses.

C. Firewall policies must include application filtering rules.

D. WLANs must use the decrypt-tunnel forwarding option.

Correct Answer: B

Question 6:

How can network administrators upgrade AirMatch on an Aruba Mobility Master (MM)?

A. Upgrade Client Match as part of a global software upgrade, and upgrade AirMatch separately as a loadable service module (LSM).

B. Upgrade Client Match and AirMatch separately as loadable service modules (LSMs).

C. Upgrade AirMatch and Client Match through a global software upgrade.

D. Upgrade AirMatch as part of a global software upgrade, and upgrade Client Match separately as a loadable service module (LSM).

Correct Answer: B

Question 7:

An AP operates on channel 6. Which device causes the most significant and consistent interference with the signal?

A. cellular phone

B. weather radar

C. wireless security camera operating on channel 8

D. AP operating on channel 11

Correct Answer: C

Question 8:

A network administrator needs to create an Aruba firewall rule that permits wireless users to receive DHCP settings when they first connect to the Aruba solution. What are the correct source and destination aliases for the rule?

A. source = any and destination = user

B. source = any and destination = any

C. source = user and destination = user

D. source = user and destination = any

Correct Answer: B

Question 9:

How can network administrator provide high availability for APs deployed in an Aruba Mobility Master (MM)-based architecture?

A. Establish clusters of Mobility Controllers (MCs).

B. Configure MM to provide backup AP tunnel termination in case of controller failure.

C. Deploy all licenses locally yo APs, so that they can continue to function if they lose contact with their controller.

D. Configure APs to convert to controller-less Instant AP mode during controller failure.

Correct Answer: A

Question 10:

A network administrator adds several new APs to an Aruba solution that uses AirMatch. The administrator does not want to change the channel for the existing APs, but wants the new APs to receive a provisional plan for their channels and

power.

What should the administrator do to meet this goal?

A. Run an on-demand quick AirMatch optimization.

B. Run an on-demand incremental AirMatch optimization.

C. Temporarily enable ARM on the existing and new APs, while AirMatch scheduling remains enabled.

D. Temporarily disable AirMatch scheduling, and then enable ARM on the existing and new APs.

Correct Answer: B

Question 11:

What is the minimum space between channels in the 2.4GHz range to prevent overlap?

A. 1 channel

B. 3 channels

C. 5 channels

D. 7 channels

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

A Mobility Controller (MC) runs ArubaOS 8. What is a valid reason for an administrator to set the MC to master-local mode?

A. The company already has a partially hierarchical deployment based on the 6.x code and wants to keep the current architecture.

B. The company needs to manage third-party network infrastructure devices with the use of the master controller interface.

C. The company wants a deployment architecture that allows administrators to configure all MC settings from a single location.

D. The company requires a centralized licensing architecture that provides global license pools.

Correct Answer: A

Question 13:

A network administrator wants to implement MAC filtering for the wireless network of a local financial firm to ensure that only employees can access the wireless network. What is a potential weakness of this solution?

A. MAC filters cannot be applied with WPA2 encryption.

B. Authorized MAC addresses are visible in plaintext in the air and can be easily spoofed.

C. Many popular clients do not have the capability to connect to WLANs that use MAC filters.

D. MAC filters offer no protection against authorized users who try to connect unauthorized devices.

Correct Answer: B

Question 14:

Which type of authentication server should administrators select to authenticate users to a ClearPass server?

A. Windows

B. RADIUS

C. TACACS

D. LDAP

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

A network administrator wants to use unique digital certificates installed on user devices to authenticate wireless users. Which EAP method should the RADIUS server and clients support?

A. PEAP and MS-CHAPv2

B. EAP-TLS

C. EAP-TTLS and MS-CHAPv2

D. LEAP

Correct Answer: B

CompTIA Linux

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Question 1:

Which of the following statements would create a default route using a gateway of 192.168.1.1?

A. netstat -add default gw

B. route default 192.168.1.1

C. ip route default 192.168.1.1

D. route add default gw 192.168.1.1

E. ifconfig default gw 192.168.1.1 eth0

Correct Answer: D

Question 2:

Which of the following commands will set the local machine\’s timezone to UTC?

A. cat UTC > /etc/timezone

B. ln -s /usr/share/zoneinfo/UTC /etc/localtime

C. date –timezone=UTC

D. mv /usr/timezone/UTC /etc

Correct Answer: B

Question 3:

Which of the following is pool.ntp.org?

A. A deprecated feature for maintaining system time in the Linux kernel.

B. A website which provides binary and source packages for the OpenNTPD project.

C. A virtual cluster of various timeservers.

D. A community website used to discuss the localization of Linux.

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:

Which of the following lines from /etc/X11/xorg.conf indicates that fonts can be found on a font server?

A. FontPath= server

B. Fonts “unix/:7100”

C. FontPath “unix/:7100”

D. Fonts= server

E. Fontserver = “servername”

Correct Answer: C

Question 5:

Which of the following SQL statements will select the fields name and address from the contacts table?

A. SELECT (name, address) FROM contacts;

B. SELECT (name address) FROM contacts;

C. SELECT name, address FROM contacts;

D. SELECT name address FROM contacts;

Correct Answer: C

Question 6:

Which of the following bash option will prevent an administrator from overwriting a file with a “>”?

A. set -o safe

B. set -o noglob

C. set -o noclobber

D. set -o append

E. set -o nooverwrite

Correct Answer: C

Question 7:

In the following command and its output, echo $$ 12942 which of the following is 12942?

A. The process ID of the echo command.

B. The process ID of the current shell.

C. The process ID of the last command executed.

D. The process ID of the last backgrounded command.

Correct Answer: B

Question 8:

Which of the following commands is used to deactivate a network interface?

A. ifdown

B. ipdown

C. net

D. netdown

Correct Answer: A

Question 9:

Which of the following lines would an administrator find in the file /etc/resolv.conf?

A. order hosts, bind

B. 192.168.168.4 dns-server

C. hosts: files, dns

D. domain mycompany.com

Correct Answer: D

Question 10:

Which of the following find commands will print out a list of suid root files in /usr?

A. find /usr -uid 0 -perm 4000

B. find -user root mode s /usr

C. find -type suid -username root -d /usr

D. find /usr -ls \*s\* -u root

E. find /usr -suid -perm 4000

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

Which of the following commands will provide locale-specific information about a system and its environment?

A. loconfig

B. getlocale

C. locale

D. tzconfig

E. tzselect

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

Which of the following statements are true regarding the below syslog.conf configuration directive? (Select THREE) *.err;kern.notice;auth.notice /dev/console

A. Severity crit messages from all facilities will be directed to /dev/console

B. Severity notice messages from the auth facility will be directed to /dev/console

C. Severity notice messages from the kern facility will be directed to /dev/console

D. Severity err messages from the mail facility will be directed /dev/console

E. Severity notice messages from all facilities will be directed to /dev/console

Correct Answer: BCD

Question 13:

On a system running the K Display Manager, when is the /etc/kde4/kdm/Xreset script automatically executed?

A. When KDM starts

B. When a user\’s X session exists

C. When KDM crashes

D. When X is restarted

E. When X crashes

Correct Answer: B

Question 14:

To test a shell script called myscript, the environment variable FOOBAR must be removed temporarily. How can this be done?

A. unset -v FOOBAR

B. set -a FOOBAR=””

C. env -u FOOBAR myscript D. env -i FOOBAR myscript

Correct Answer: C

Question 15:

Which of the following commands can an administrator use to change a user\’s password expiry information? (Select THREE).

A. usermod

B. passwd

C. chattr

D. chage

E. chsh

Correct Answer: ABD

CCNP

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Question 1:

Which feature on MDS platforms ensures that the code that is running on the hardware platform is authentic and unmodified, while also validating the BIOS to eliminate any rootkits.

A. Cisco Secure Boot

B. UEFI Secure Boot

C. Secure Unique Device Identifier

D. BIOS Secure Boot

Correct Answer: A

Question 2:

Which component is initially responsible for loading the kickstart image on Cisco MDS Switches?

A. ROMMON

B. BIOS

C. NX-OS

D. BASH

Correct Answer: C

Question 3:

Which two components are required for successful MDS USB POAP (Choose two.)

A. NTFS formatted USB drive

B. USB drive in port 1

C. script named poap_script pl

D. ENTERPRISE_PKG license

E. system and kickstart images

Correct Answer: CE

Question 4:

A Cisco MDS Series Switch with the POAP feature boots and does not find the startup configuration. Which location is checked first when the switch enters POAP mode?

A. USB device that contains the software image files and the switch configuration file

B. DHCP server to bootstrap the interface IP address, gateway, DNS server, and TFTP IP addresses

C. TFTP server where the necessary configuration files are downloaded

D. HTTP server where the URL is used to download the software image

Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

After user account attributes are modified in Cisco NX-OS, when do changes to the user\’s session attributes take effect?

A. immediately

B. at the scheduled time

C. when the user logs out of a session

D. when the user creates a new session

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

A storage network engineer is implementing disk-array data replication between two SAN environments in two different data centers not connected via Fibre Channel. Which SAN switch feature must be implemented?

A. FCIP

B. zoning merge over LAN

C. VSAN scoping

D. IVR

Correct Answer: A

Question 7:

What is the effect of a non-graceful virtual machine shutdown on a virtualized server that is connected to a SAN with Fibre Channel interfaces?

A. NP Port reload connected to the upstream SAN switch

B. out-of-service Fibre Channel interfaces on the SAN switch

C. frames stuck in the storage system

D. frames stuck in the HBA buffer of the server

Correct Answer: B

Question 8:

Which result occurs if a device alias is renamed and then the original device alias name is used in an add command in the same session?

A. Both commands execute successfully.

B. The device alias is renamed and the add command is moved to the rejected list.

C. Both commands are moved to the rejected list.

D. The rename command is moved to the rejected list and the add command executes successfully.

Correct Answer: A

Question 9:

Which result occurs when a VSAN is deleted that contains non-trunking ports?

A. The ports are moved to VSAN 4094.

B. The ports are moved to VSAN 1.

C. The ports are removed from the configuration.

D. The port configurations are cleared.

Correct Answer: A

Question 10:

A storage network engineer is implementing a port channel for multiple FCIP interfaces with write acceleration in a client\’s storage network. Which channel mode must be used?

A. on

B. passive

C. active

D. force

Correct Answer: C

Question 11:

Which configuration is always required when running the setup utility on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch?

A. administrator password

B. management IP address

C. active NTP server

D. active default gateway

Correct Answer: A

Question 12:

A network engineer is configuring a Cisco MDS switch for FCoE. Which two conditions must be considered during the implementation phase? (Choose two.)

A. On Cisco MDS switches, system-defined class maps for class-FCoE and class-default are enabled but can be deleted.

B. The QoS policy must be identical to other Cisco FCoE switches in the network.

C. On the Cisco MDS, the MTU is set equal to 2112.

D. VLAN 1 or the native VLAN can be mapped to an FCoE VSAN.

E. FCoE is already enabled on a Cisco MDS switch.

Correct Answer: BE

Question 13:

A storage administrator is configuring inter-VSAN routing on a fabric that contains duplicate domain IDs. Which feature must be configured to ensure continued operation?

A. auto topology

B. transit VSANs

C. IVR NAT

D. virtual domains

Correct Answer: C

Question 14:

Which EtherType is used by the FCoE Initialization Protocol?

A. 0x8913

B. 0x8914

C. 0xxfc0e

D. 0x8906

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

What is the function of the 0xFFFFFC address in a Fibre Channel fabric?

A. management server

B. fabric controller

C. name server

D. time server

Correct Answer: C

Additional Online Exams for Validating Knowledge

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Question 1:

Where will an account manager find the largest source of case studies, whitepapers, demos, and vertical- oriented Information around Cisco Collaboration?

A. Collaboration Use Case

B. QuickStart for Cisco Collaboration

C. Cisco Competitive Edge Portal

D. Steps to Success

E. Cisco Collaboration business case

Correct Answer: E

Question 2:

Once you define the customer\’s value chain, you will be able to identify departments managing core processes where the Cisco Collaboration Architecture will bring highest business value.

Which two of the following departments typically manage core processes? (Choose two.)

A. Procurement

B. Sales and Marketing

C. Logistics and Operations

D. HR Management

E. Research and Development

Correct Answer: BC

Question 3:

Which option leads to the development of high-level and detailed customer designs?

A. Mapping collaboration maps with the customer\’s existing solutions

B. Mapping collaboration maps with the customer assessment procedure

C. Mapping collaboration maps with the customer business model

D. Mapping collaboration maps with the Cisco Collaboration Architecture solutions

Correct Answer: D

Question 4:

Security plays an essential role in the Cisco Collaboration Architecture In which layers of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture is security implemented?

A. Advanced Cisco security solutions are implemented in all layers of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture model.

B. Security is implemented in all the layers except in the medianet services interface layer.

C. Cisco security solutions are integrated into the infrastructure layer and partially into the collaboration services layer

D. Cisco provides advanced security solutions in the infrastructure and collaboration services layers while the collaboration applications layer security is ensured by third-party solutions.

Correct Answer: D

Question 5:

Which two customer statements present business ROI? (Choose two)

A. With Cisco Collaboration, we can deploy Extension Mobility, which will allow employees to “touchdown” at any workspace

B. With Cisco Collaboration, we will engage quicker with third-party suppliers and will shorten go-to- market time for innovative products globally

C. A Cisco Collaboration Architecture will improve our company\’s morale

D. Cisco Telepresence can integrate with our existing video infrastructure

E. Cisco Collaboration helps us to increase the productivity of our sales force and to gain new revenue streams through new customers

Correct Answer: BE

Question 6:

Which digital signaling is correctly mapped to its functionality?

A. T1 PRI NFAS – Used to connect to the PSTN where caller ID is required and PRI is not an option

B. T1 CAS – Used widely in North America to connect to the PSTN or PBXs

C. T1 FGD – Uses a single D channel to control multiple spans of T1s with only B channels option

D. T1 and E1 PRI – Uses the Q Signaling variation of the basic ISDN specification

Correct Answer: B

Question 7:

Which two statements about how PBX architectures compare to Cisco Unified Communications are true? (Choose two.)

A. A PBX architecture offers advanced, integrated applications such as presence and integrated video.

B. Cisco Unified Communications offers advanced, integrated applications such as presence and integrated video.

C. Cisco Unified Communications provides historical reporting, unlike traditional PBXs.

D. Cisco Unified Communications decreases costs of MACs

E. A PBX offers increased security.

Correct Answer: BD

Question 8:

Which three options are assessment types for gap analysis? (Choose three.)

A. Architectural assessments

B. Operational assessments

C. Business assessments

D. Outsourcing assessments

E. Technology assessments

F. Virtualization assessments

Correct Answer: ABE

Question 9:

Which option represents an organizational change objection?

A. We are expanding and acquiring new business. This is the wrong time to switch to collaboration.

B. How can we justify the fact that it is far more expensive than upgrading our existing solution?

C. How can a collaboration architecture help reduce our operating expenses?

D. A migration is impossible without high costs or operational fallouts.

Correct Answer: A

Question 10:

Which option is a next-generation agent and supervisor desktop that offers a user-centric design to enhance customer care satisfaction along with a collaborative experience?

A. Cisco WebEx

B. Cisco SocialMiner

C. Cisco Finesse

D. Cisco Jabber

Correct Answer: C

Question 11:

Which tool offers a blueprint for designing and deploying a full-service, comprehensive network to support business needs?

A. Cisco Smart Business Roadmap

B. Cisco Collaboration Use Case Tool

C. Cisco Steps to Success

D. Cisco Smart Business Architecture

Correct Answer: D

Question 12:

In which layer of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture do you find session and content management?

A. Collaboration applications layer

B. Endpoint device layer

C. Infrastructure layer

D. Collaboration services layer

Correct Answer: D

Question 13:

Which two options are advantages of a Collaboration Architecture that are important from the Human Resource Manager\’s viewpoint? (Choose two.)

A. 24-hour network support.

B. Advanced collaboration tools improve upon ways in which corporations can enforce employee accountability.

C. The corporation gains increased redundancy in the communications network

D. Emergency response is improved upon, which results in a safer work environment

E. Advanced collaboration applications provide multiple communication channels through which employees can communicate with one another.

Correct Answer: BD

Question 14:

Which two options are ways by which collaboration has impacted the government sector? (Choose two.)

A. Improved safety and security

B. Improved operations and impact

C. Anytime, anywhere learning

D. Growing loyalty

E. Increased employee productivity

Correct Answer: AB

Question 15:

Which statement about Medianet is true?

A. Medianet enables integration of video infrastructure with network infrastructure.

B. Medianet enables Cisco Collaboration network management

C. Medianet is an intelligent network that is optimized for rich media

D. Medianet is the network infrastructure layer of video networks

Correct Answer: C

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Question 1:

What does the fraud detection module provide out-of-the-box? (2)

A. If an order is identified as fraud, it is rejected automatically and marked as cancelled

B. Essential fraud checks conducted by the internal fraud service

C. A sample/mockup implementation based on a fraud symptom detection

D. A storefront interface for customers to see the reason that their order is judged fraudulent

Correct Answer: AC

Question 2:

How do you add a property to a set of products? (2)

A. Create a new classification category and feature, and assign it to a catalog category

B. Create a new catalog version and include all products with the new required property

C. Create a new facet and include the new required property

D. Create a sub type of the product item type and include the new required property

Correct Answer: AB

Question 3:

You want to create a new web page. What are page templates used for? (2)

A. To add restrictions to a page

B. To specify the shared slots

C. To specify the layout of a page

D. To create page components

Correct Answer: AD

Question 4:

What can you do in the Basic Edit mode of SmartEdit? (3)

A. Synchronize a content catalog

B. Add components to a page

C. Add or edit component restrictions

D. Move components within a page

E. Save or recall a version

Correct Answer: BCD

Question 5:

Which out-of-the-box features do Commerce Customizations provide? (2)

A. Personalized promotions

B. Personalized product bundles

C. Personalized search results

D. Personalized prices

Correct Answer: AC

Question 6:

Which features are specific to the SAP Commerce, telco and media accelerator? (2)

A. Find agent

B. Fraud detection engine

C. Subscriptions

D. Bundling of products and services

Correct Answer: CD

Question 7:

You want to feature a page on your storefront that can only be viewed by a special user group. What SAP Commerce user interface do you use to do this?

A. BackOffice Adaptive Search Perspective

B. BackOffice Sales Organization Perspective

C. BackOffice Product Cockpit

D. SmartEdit

Correct Answer: D

Question 8:

In SAP Commerce, if multiple PriceRows match a price request, which PriceRow has priority?

A. The PriceRow for a specific product group and customer group

B. The PriceRow with NO specific product or customer

C. The PriceRow with NO specific product but with specific customer

D. The PriceRow for a specific product and specific customer

Correct Answer: D

Question 9:

Which features are specific to the SAP Commerce, B2B accelerator? (3)

A. Order approval processes

B. Product searching

C. PunchOut support

D. Bundling promotions

E. Price quote requests

Correct Answer: ACE

Question 10:

In SAP Commerce, where can you configure Availability to Promise?

A. ln the BackOffice Administration Cockpit

B. In the BackOffice Adaptive Search Perspective

C. In the BackOffice Order Fulfillment Cockpit

D. In the BackOffice Customer Support Cockpit

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

Which user interfaces can be used to change prices? (2)

A. BackOffice Customer Support Cockpit

B. BackOffice Administration Cockpit

C. SmartEdit

D. BackOffice Product Cockpit

Correct Answer: BD

Question 12:

Which of the following solutions can be used to integrate third-party systems with SAP Commerce? (3)

A. Datahub

B. RESTful services

C. BackOffice Product Content Management

D. SAP Integration APIs

E. Administration console (hac) of SAP Commerce

Correct Answer: ABD

Question 13:

What are key features of entitlement and metering for SAP Commerce? (3)

A. Ability to automatically connect external entitlement platforms

B. Ability to view entitlements in the WCMS Cockpit

C. Abil ty to assign multiple metered or non-meterd entitlements to a product

D. Abil ty to measure usage and limit access when a threshold is reached

E. Abil ty to grant entitlements at checkout

Correct Answer: CDE

Question 14:

For which use case is a product variant appropriate?

A. The product manager defines new product attributes based on the product\’s location in the category hierarchy

B. The customer selects the fabric of a product being added to the cart

C. The customer selects each component of a bundle from a list of available products

D. The product manager defines a localized variation of a product for each country-specific Web site

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

Which SAP solutions can be integrated with SAP Commerce out-of-the-box? (3)

A. SAP Sales and Distribution

B. SAP Materials Management

C. SAP Customer Engagement Center

D. SAP Marketing Cloud

E. SAP Revenue Cloud

Correct Answer: CDE

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Question 1:

A user has installed two new drives in one of the computers in the computer lab and has been unable to format Disk1 from the command prompt. The lab requires that Disk1 be a dynamic disk configured with two partitions. The first partition

must be 256,000 MB in size and mapped to drive F. The second partition must be 512,000 MB in size and mapped to drive G.

The new partitions must be formatted to ensure that users\’ files can be secured from other users and that the disk must be configured to account for future redundancy.

Instructions: Conduct the necessary steps within the Disk Manager to accomplish these tasks. When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit.

Correct Answer: Review the for all details.

Right click on disk 1, click on initialize

Choose disk and option as MBR. Hit ok.

Again, right click on disk 1 and choose convert to dynamic disk. Now right click on disk 1 and choose new simple volume. Specify storage as 256000 and assign a drive letter F and choose file system as NTFS and click finish.

Do the same thing for rest of space of disk 1, assigning 512000MB and using Disc G

Here are the screen shots showing this process:

Macintosh HD:Users:danielkeller:Desktop:Screen Shot 2015-07-31 at 7.09.55 AM.png

Macintosh HD:Users:danielkeller:Desktop:Screen Shot 2015-07-31 at 7.10.09 AM.png

Macintosh HD:Users:danielkeller:Desktop:Screen Shot 2015-07-31 at 7.10.20 AM.png

Macintosh HD:Users:danielkeller:Desktop:Screen Shot 2015-07-31 at 7.00.52 AM.png

Macintosh HD:Users:danielkeller:Desktop:Screen Shot 2015-07-31 at 7.03.15 AM.png

Macintosh HD:Users:danielkeller:Desktop:Screen Shot 2015-07-31 at 7.03.44 AM.png

Macintosh HD:Users:danielkeller:Desktop:Screen Shot 2015-07-31 at 7.13.51 AM.png

Macintosh HD:Users:danielkeller:Desktop:Screen Shot 2015-07-31 at 7.03.57 AM.png

Question 2:

Two components of Genericwafe2.0 are causing performance issues on a Windows 7 PC One Genencware2.0 component is currently not responding and needs to be disabled upon reboot. To prevent further performance issues ensure both components are no longer running upon reboot without making any other changes to the current system or without deleting registry keys or shortcuts.

Instructions: When you have completed the simulation, please select the done button to submit your answer.

Correct Answer: Please review for detailed answer.

Please check the below images for detailed steps to do:

Question 3:

You need to configure your mobile device to send and receive electronic messages from your company. Your mobile device must be able to truly synchronize the message state with your desktop so that when a message is read on your desktop it is marked as read on your mobile device These are the proper parameters:

Email address [email protected] com

Password [email protected]

Pop techies com Port 110 Security. None

IMAP techies com Port 993 Security SSL

Smtp.techies.com Port 465 Security: TLS

Company SSID Techies

Security WPA2

Passphrase [email protected]

SSID is not broadcasted

Instructions You are not authorized to use the Company\’s WLAN The outgoing server does not require login credentials When you have completed the simulation, please select the done button to submit your answer.

Correct Answer: Please review explanation for detailed answer.

Explanation/Reference:

Settings are configured exactly as solution below:

Question 4:

A Windows 7 machine appears to have a failure. Every time it is rebooted, the message “BOOTMGR is missing” appears. You have previously inserted a Windows 7 installation DVD into the DVD-ROM. Please repair this failure without

overwriting the customers\’ local user profiles.

Instructions:

Launch the simulation to repair the failure

Type Help in command line to show list of available commands When you have completed the simulation, please select the done button.

Correct Answer: Please review for detailed answer.

Please check the below images for detailed steps to do:

Question 5:

Drag and drop the following Windows 7 versions in order according to their feature-sets, from MOST to LEAST.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 6:

Drag and drop the following Windows Versions to the correct feature on which they are found. Windows Versions may be used more than once.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 7:

You have been tasked with setting up a new executive\’s laptop on his home network. After an investigation, you find that his home network is wired and has the following settings:

IP range is 10.10.10.0

Netmask is 255.255.255.0

Default gateway is 10.10.10.1

Additionally, the router\’s address is used as the primary DNS server and WINS is not in use.

Please configure the laptop with an IP address of 10.10.10.15, ensuring that the laptop will still work when plugged into the switch at the office, which is configured for DHCP. Do not make any other unnecessary configurations to the laptop.

Instructions: Keyboard shortcuts are not available. When you have completed the simulation, please select the done button to submit your answer.

Correct Answer: Review the for all details.

Right click in Local Area Network and double click on the IPv4 settings:

Macintosh HD:Users:danielkeller:Desktop:Screen Shot 2015-07-31 at 6.50.23 AM.png Choose Alternate Configuration Tab and enter as follows:

Macintosh HD:Users:danielkeller:Desktop:Screen Shot 2015-07-31 at 6.54.23 AM.png

Question 8:

The network administrator has changed the IP address of ComputerA from 192.168.1.20 to 10.10.10.20 and now Jane, a user, is unable to connect to file shares on ComputerA from ComputerB using the computer name.

Instructions:

Using the available tools, resolve the connectivity issues. When you have completed the simulation, please select the done button

to submit your answer.

Correct Answer: Review the for all details.

Need to flush the DNS cache on Computer B:

Macintosh HD:Users:danielkeller:Desktop:Screen Shot 2015-07-31 at 7.17.54 AM.png

Question 9:

A client states that there are too many programs automatically starting when Windows boots. Which of the following tools would BEST be used to disable some programs from automatically starting when the computer is booted?

A. Performance Monitor

B. Fixboot

C. MSCONFIG

D. FIXMBR

Correct Answer: C

Question 10:

Ann, a customer, has a wired router that connects to the Internet without any issue, but does not provide any other network services. When users connect PCs to the router, they cannot access the Internet or any other network resources.

Which of the following should Ann do to connect the PCs to the Internet?

A. Change the gateway address on the wired router

B. Set the DNS to an external public source on the PCs

C. Remove the PCs from the MAC filter list in the wired router

D. Change the switch port duplex setting from half to full

Correct Answer: B

Question 11:

Which Windows 7 command can stop a single process from the command-line?

A. Taskkill

B. Shutdown

C. Tasklist

D. DEL

Correct Answer: A

Question 12:

Which of the following is required in order to receive push email notifications on a mobile device?

A. IMAP

B. POP3

C. ActiveSync

D. SMTP

Correct Answer: B

Question 13:

At the airport the company sales employees work on their laptops to submit financial proposals. Which of the following would mitigate shoulder surfing?

A. Firewalls

B. The use of VPNs

C. Privacy filters

D. RSA key fobs

Correct Answer: C

Question 14:

Which of the following features is a characteristic associated to that of Android-based smartphones?

A. Apple App Store

B. Closed source SDK

C. Proprietary data cable connector

D. Open source SDK

Correct Answer: D

Question 15:

A user states they are hearing a clicking noise coming from the computer. There is a message on the screen saying no operating system found, and the computer then attempts to boot from PXE. Which of the following should the technician perform?

A. Remove the floppy disk

B. Replace the hard drive

C. Replace the NIC

D. Replace the DVD-Rom

Correct Answer: B

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Question 1:

Which underlying protocol(s) does LDP utilize to communicate with LDP Peers?

A. UDP and TCP

B. UDP only

C. LDP uses IP Protocol 646 and does not rely on UDP or TCP

D. TCP only

Correct Answer: A

Question 2:

Which command is used to undo a change after issuing a commit command?

A. router# rollback configuration to -1

B. router(config# commit undo

C. router(config)# commit rollback

D. router# rollback configuration last 1

Correct Answer: D

Question 3:

What is the TRACE command?

A. A packet tracer showing the path of a packet from ingress to egress in the router.

B. The replacement for TraceRoute in IOS-XR.

C. A form of always-on debugging available for a subset of commands.

D. Exactly the same as the debug command, must be explicitly turned on.

Correct Answer: A

Question 4:

Which mode will shut down a process?

A. EXEC

B. ADMIN

C. CONFIG

D. ADMIN-CONFIG

Correct Answer: D

Question 5:

One of your peers show in the SHOW BGP VPNV4 UNICAST SUMMARY output

What is the cause of this?

A. The label value ranges are mismatched.

B. The peer has no prefixes with a Route-Target that the local router is importing.

C. The BGP prefixes between the routers have not fully converged and will correct itself in time.

D. The peer router is not configured to use the VPNv4 address-family for this connection.

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

What BGP address-families are used between the ASBRs in the different AS\’es in an IPv4 Option C Layer-3 VPN solution?

A. VPNv4 Unicast Only

B. IPv4 Umcast and VPNv4 Unicast

C. IPv4 Labeled-Unicast only

D. IPv4 Unicast and IPv4 Labeled-Unicast

Correct Answer: D

Question 7:

What priority values do the WDSYSMON Ticker and Watcher threads utilize?

A. Ticker 11, Watcher 254

B. Ticker 10, Watcher 63

C. Ticker 11, Watcher 63

D. Ticker 10, Watcher 254

Correct Answer: C

Question 8:

Which command is similar to the Unix TOP command to display process utilization information?

A. show

B. trace processes

C. show process dynamic

D. monitor processes

Correct Answer: D

Question 9:

Which command is used to redistribute BGP into EIGRP for a Layer 3 VPN customer?

A. router(config-eigrp-af)# redistribute bgp 65001

B. router(config-eigrp-vrf-af)# redistribute bgp 65001

C. rouur(config-eigrp-vrf)# redistribute bgp 65001

D. router(config-eigrp)# redistribute bgp 65001

Correct Answer: B

Question 10:

When are core dump files created by the system?

A. There are too many critical events.

B. There are too many duplicate messages.

C. The commit database is full.

D. A process fails or terminates abnormally.

Correct Answer: D

Question 11:

What information is unchanged after a process restart?

A. Job ID

B. Last Started

C. Respawn Count

D. Process ID

Correct Answer: A

Note that ospf process is given a Job ID (JID), which is 250. This never changes on a running router and generally on a particular version of Cisco IOS XR. Within the ospf process there are five threads each with their own Thread ID (TID). Listed is the stack space for each thread, the priority of each thread and its state.

Question 12:

Which protocol is a PE to CE routing protocol?

A. ODR

B. LDP

C. RIPv1

D. eBGP

Correct Answer: D

Question 13:

What is the default MP-BGP address-family on IOS-XR?

A. IPv6 unicast

B. There is no default address-family

C. IPv4 unicast

D. VPNv4

Correct Answer: B

Question 14:

Which VRFs must be configured on the ASBRs between the two AS\’es in an Option B Layer-3 VPN solution?

A. The VRFs shared between the two AS\’es plus one VRF representing each AS.

B. The VRFs shared between the two AS\’es.

C. The VRFs shared between the two AS\’es plus one shared VRF.

D. The VRFs do not need to be configured on the ASBRs.

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

Which command is used to configure an interface that does not currently exist in the system?

A. interface preconfigure

B. preconfigure interface

C. interface vrf preconfig

D. controller preconfigure

Correct Answer: A

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Question 1:

Given the cashflows below, which of the following is correct?

A. The project pays back in year 4 of the project.

B. The project does not pay back within the four year period.

C. The project pays back in year 2 of the project.

D. The project pays back in year 3 of the project.

Correct Answer: B

Question 2:

On a class diagram, what do the multiplicities represent?

A. The number of attributes held within each class.

B. The minimum and maximum number of operations in each class.

C. The minimum and maximum number of objects in each class.

D. The business rules for an association between two classes.

Correct Answer: D

Question 3:

During which stage of the Business Analysis Process Model would a gap analysis be carried out?

A. Define requirements.

B. Analyse needs.

C. Evaluate the options.

D. Investigate situation.

Correct Answer: B

Question 4:

In a particular organisation it is common practice to call all managers by their first name. It is part of the culture of the organisation. Newcomers are quickly corrected if they do not follow this informal approach. What would knowing about this convention be classified as in Requirements Engineering?

A. Explicit individual knowledge.

B. Tacit individual knowledge.

C. Explicit corporate knowledge.

D. Tacit corporate knowledge.

Correct Answer: D

Question 5:

An analyst is defining the requirements for an online booking system and wishes to show the business managers the look and feel of the system in order to elicit usability requirements. What investigation technique should the analyst use?

A. Workshops.

B. Interviewing.

C. Ethnographic study

D. Prototyping.

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. The IRR of every project is based on it achieving a Net Present Value of zero.

B. It is preferable for the calculated IRR of a project to be below bank interest rates,

C. Discounted cash flows do not usually take into account the time value of money.

D. When comparing two projects, the one with the lower NPV should be preferred.

Correct Answer: A

Question 7:

Which of the following BEST describes an ethnographic study?

A. A study which uses prototype graphical screens to demonstrate a user requirement.

B. A study of users in their workplace undertaking representative simulated scenarios.

C. A study where the analyst spends an extended period of time in the target environment.

D. A study which ensures that the needs of a wide range of ethnic groups are considered.

Correct Answer: C

Question 8:

Which stage of the Requirements Engineering process is concerned with tracking requirements from inception to implementation?

A. Requirements documentation

B. Requirements management

C. Requirements validation.

D. Requirements analysis.

Correct Answer: B

Question 9:

An analyst has discovered that a company wishes to hold information about departments and employees. A department may have many employees in it, but each employee can, at any one time, only work in one department. There is no requirement to store historical information. However, there are currently eight departments and over one hundred employees. How would this relationship be shown on an Entity Relationship diagram?

A. As (8..100) at the Department end of the relationship.

B. As a many-to-many between Department and Employee.

C. As a one-to-one between Department and Employee.

D. As a one-to-many between Department and Employee.

Correct Answer: D

Question 10:

When running workshops it is useful to have someone with a role that includes specific responsibility for keeping attendees focused on achieving the objective of the workshop. Which of the following terms describes this role?

A. The arbitrator.

B. The scribe.

C. The stakeholder.

D. The facilitator.

Correct Answer: D

Question 11:

In which of the following circumstances do buyers have high bargaining power?

A. When available sources of supply are available and easy to find.

B. When the cost of a product or service is low.

C. When switching costs are high.

D. When the supplier brand is powerful.

Correct Answer: A

Question 12:

A convenience food manufacturer has undertaken a strategic analysis study and has identified a threat from groups lobbying against the use of packaging for food products. Which of the PESTLE categories would have helped highlight this threat?

A. Legal.

B. Environmental.

C. Technological.

D. Economic.

Correct Answer: B

Question 13:

Which of the following is a primary activity in the value chain?

A. Human Resources (HR).

B. Procurement.

C. Information Technology (IT).

D. Marketing and Sales.

Correct Answer: D

Question 14:

The Boston Box may be used to analyse the portfolio of businesses owned by an organisation. Which of the following animals does it use in its term for businesses that have low market share in a market with low growth?

A. Cow.

B. Cat.

C. Dog.

D. Goat.

Correct Answer: C

Question 15:

The V model is an example of which of the following?

A. A business analysis process model.

B. A systems development lifecycle.

C. A concerns-based adoption model.

D. A soft systems methodology.

Correct Answer: B

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Question 1:

To ensure SELinux open after the boot:

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation

Explanation/Reference:

vim /etc/sysconfig/selinux

selinux=enforcing

setenforce 1

getenforce

Question 2:

Open system kernel forwarding packets function:

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation

Explanation/Reference:

vim /etc/sysctl.conf

net.ipv4.ip_forward = 1

sysctl ‐w (Effective immediately)

The following commands should executed without sysctl.conf option:

sysctl ‐a |grep net.ipv4

sysctl ‐P net.ipv4.ip_forward = 1

sysctl ‐w

Question 3:

Configure FTP access as follows:

Download from catalog: / var / ftp / pub using anonymous is allowed

Clients within t3gg.com should NOT have access to FTP on your system

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation

Explanation/Reference:

yum install ‐y vsftpd

chkconfig vsftpd on

services vsftpd start

Deny: uninstall hosts.deny or use iptables

vim /etc/hosts.deny

vsftpd: 172.25.0.0/16

iptables ‐A INPUT ‐s 172.25.0.0/16 ‐p tcp ‐dport 20:21 ‐j REJECT

services iptables save

Question 4:

Mount /root/cdrom.iso under /opt/data, and take effect automatically at boot‐start

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation

Explanation/Reference:

cd /opt/

mkdir data

mount ‐t iso9660 ‐o loop /root/cdrom.iso /opt/data

vim /etc/fstab

/root/cdrom.iso /opt/data iso9660 defaults,loop 0 0

Question 5:

Configure NFS server to share /common directory with domain30.example.com.

Authenticate the clients devices have the access to it as root user.

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation

Explanation/Reference:

yum install ‐y nfs

chkconfig nfs on

chkconfig rpcbind on

vim /etc/exports

/common 172.24.30.0/255.255.255.0 (rw,no_root_squash)

showmount ‐e 172.16.30.5

mount ‐t nfs 172.16.30.5:/common /mnt

Question 6:

Configure an email server domian30.example.com, and it requests to send and receive emails from the local server or the user harry can send or receive emails from network. The email of user harry is /var/spool/mail/harry. Please note: the

DNS server has already been MX record.

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation

Explanation/Reference:

yum install ‐y postfix

chkconfig postfix on

vim /etc/postfix/main.cf

inet_interfaces = all

mydestination = example.com, domain30.example.com, localhost

mynetworks = 172.16.30.0/24, 127.0.0.1/8

services postfix restart

Test:

netstat ‐tulnp |grep 25

hostname

echo hello |mail ‐s “est”[email protected]

cat /var/spool/mai/harry

Question 7:

Configure Kernel parameters rhelblq=1 and enable /proc/cmdline to verify your Kernel parameters.

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Vim /etc/grub.conf

Write the end of the kernel line

To see after restart

cat /proc/cmdline

Question 8:

Configure cron as follow:

Clients tom should NOT have access to cron

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation

Explanation/Reference:

useradd tom

vim /etc/cron.deny

tom

Effective immediately save and exit.

Question 9:

Please visit iscsi shared storage, storage server address is 172.24.30.100, ceded 1500M space, formatted with the ext3 file system, mount / mnt / data, and boot automatically mount.

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation

Explanation/Reference:

yum install ‐y iscsi*

chkconfig iscsid on

chkconfig iscsi on

iscsiadm ‐m discovery ‐t st ‐p 172.24.30.100:3260

iscsiadm ‐m node ‐T iqn.2011 ‐p 172.24.30.100 ‐|

service iscsi restart

fdisk ‐|

fdisk /dev/sda

partx ‐a /dev/sda

mkfs.ext3 /dev/sad1

yum ‐y install tree

cd /var/lib/iscsi

tree . view iqn

cd /mnt

mkdir data

blkid /dev/sda1 (View UUID, UUID mount)

vim /etc/fstab

UUID=XXX /mnt/data ext3 default, _netdev 0 0

mount ‐a

Question 10:

Configuring the NFS service that will /mnt /storage directory with read‐only shared to the example.com domain user when the client as the root user will also have access to the root directory permissions to read‐only shared to cracker.org

domain users.

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation

Explanation/Reference:

# vim /etc/exports

/mnt/storage *.example.com(ro,sync,no_root_squash)

/mnt/storage *.cracker.org(ro,sync)

Question 11:

Samba configuration requirements are as follows:

1. The Working Group called RHCE

2. Types of user authentication

3. Shared / mnt / storage directory share name for the share

4. The shared directory allows user1 and user2 user has write permissions to other users are read‐only, if you need password are redhat

5. only allows the user to access the shared directory domain example.com

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation

Explanation/Reference:

# yum install ‐y samba

# vim /etc/samba/smb.conf

[global]

workgroup = RHCE

security = user

[share]

path = /mnt/storage

write list = user1 user2

hosts allow = .example.com

# ( echo redhat ; echo redhat ) | smbpasswd ‐s ‐a user1

# ( echo redhat ; echo redhat ) | smbpasswd ‐s ‐a user2

# service smb start; chkconfig smb on

Question 12:

Establish vsftp server, so that only allow user1 user access, and cannot jump out of home directories only allow users to upload and download example domain, allowing only example domains can be accessed.

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation

Explanation/Reference:

# yum ‐y install vsftpd

# vim /etc/vsftpd/vsftpd.conf

userlist_deny=NO

userlist_file=/etc/vsftpd/vsftpd.user_list

chroot_list_enable=YES

chroot_list_file= /etc/vsftpd/vsftpd.chroot_list

anon_upload_enable=YES

anonymous_enable=YES

# mkdir ‐p /var/ftp/incoming; chmod 777 /var/ftp/incoming

# chcon ‐t public_content_rw_t /var/ftp/incoming

# setsebool ‐P allow_ftpd_anon_write 1

# setsebool ‐P ftp_home_dir 1

# vim /etc/vsftpd/vsftpd.user_list

user1

# vim /etc/vsftpd/vsftpd.chroot_list

user1

# service vsftpd start; chkconfig vsftpd on

# vim /etc/hosts.deny

vsftpd: ALL EXCEPT .example.com

Question 13:

Lab 2

Turn on your kernel to forward packets function.

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Question 14:

Lab 5

Configure the SMTP mail server, you can normally receive mail for example.com domain name, host ‐based machine supports mail aliases function, that is sent to the admin e ‐mail sent to natasha.

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Question 15:

Lab 10

Boot iso file to automatically mount /boot to /mnt/cdrom.

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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