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Question 1:

You have a 2-node switchless cluster in a remote location. Node1 has taken over node 2. You want to access node 2 to investigate the problem.

In this scenario, how would you contact node 2 from a remote location?

A. Use SSH to access the Service Processor on node 2.

B. Use telnet to access the Service Processor IP on node 2.

C. Use SSH to access the node management IP on node 1.

D. Use SSH to access the node management IP on node 2.

Correct Answer: A

Question 2:

You were dispatched to add a DS224C to an existing HA pair that has a stack of DS4243 shelves with 1 TB drives and a stack of DS4246 shelves with 1 TB drives. The customer wants to make sure that ACP is cabled for all shelves.

Which two considerations should you advise the customer in this situation? (Choose two.)

A. ACP communication uses SAS cables and does not require Ethernet cables for IOM12 and IOM6 modules.

B. ACP communication cannot be used for the DS224C and the DS4243 shelves at the same time.

C. Out-of-band ACP communication is use by default in ONTAP 9.0 and later software.

D. The ACP communication has been discontinued beginning with ONTAP 9.5, IOM6, and IOM12 modules.

Correct Answer: AC

Question 3:

Your customer has a new FAS2650 HA cluster with ONTAP 9.5 installed. The cluster is connected to two CN1610 switches.

Which two statements describe this installation? (Choose two.)

A. This is a multiple-node installation.

B. This is a single-node installation.

C. The cluster interconnect is in a switched configuration.

D. The cluster interconnect is in a switchless configuration.

Correct Answer: BC

Question 4:

Select the Exhibit tab.

Referring to the exhibit, a customer wants to migrate LIF lif1_iscsi to node cluster1-02 port e0d, but they receive an error.

What is the cause of this error?

A. The LIF is not properly configured.

B. The designation port is not available.

C. This type of LIF cannot be migrated.

D. The LIF does not have a failover group.

Correct Answer: C

Question 5:

What is the maximum port speed of an Ethernet port on a Cisco Nexus 3232C cluster-interconnect switch?

A. 40GbE

B. 200GbE

C. 10GbE

D. 100GbE

Correct Answer: A

Question 6:

Without adding new cluster interconnect switches, you want to nondisruptively upgrade from FAS2554 controllers to FAS8200 controllers on an existing 2-node switchless cluster running ONTAP 9.5 software.

Which statement is correct in this scenario?

A. Relocate the aggregates to one FAS2554 node, takeover, replace the node in takeover state with a FAS8200 node, reassign the disks, giveback, and repeat for the second node.

B. Connect the FAS8200 to the FAS2554 with interconnect cables, join the existing cluster, relocate the aggregates from the FAS2554 to the FAS8200, and decommission the FAS2554.

C. Set up the FAS8200 as a new cluster, move the SVMs from the FAS2554 to the FAS8200 using SVM move, and decommission the FAS2554.

D. You cannot perform this task nondisruptively.

Correct Answer: A

Question 7:

A customer ordered two new DS224C shelves. The customer wants you to add these shelves to an existing stack which consists of two DS2246 shelves.

Which statement is true in this scenario?

A. You need to order additional cables to expand the existing stack.

B. Mixing DS224C and DS2246 shelves in the same node are not supported.

C. You cannot mix DS224C and DS2246 shelves in the same stack.

D. DS224C shelves are supports with only new HBAs.

Correct Answer: D

Question 8:

According to NetApp best practices, how many NTP servers should you associate with an ONTAP cluster?

A. 2

B. 1

C. 3

D. 4

Correct Answer: C

Question 9:

You want to expand an existing FAS8060 switchless cluster running ONTAP 9.5 with an AFF A300 system.

Which action should you take to perform this task?

A. Execute the cluster setup command on the existing FAS8060 cluster, add the cluster interconnect switches, and cable both the FAS8060 cluster and the AFF A300 system to the new cluster.

B. Create a separate switchless cluster with the AFF A300 system.

C. Connect the cluster ports of the AFF A300 system to the existing FAS8060 cluster, and join the existing cluster.

D. Add and configure the cluster interconnect switches, re-cable the FAS8060 cluster, add the AFF A300 system, and join the existing cluster.

Correct Answer: C

Question 10:

You install a new AFF A300 2-node switchless cluster with ONTAP 9.5 at a customer site. Each node has a root aggregate as part of the system configuration.

In this scenario, what is the default disk partitioning called?

A. root-data-data partitioning

B. data-data partitioning

C. root-data partitioning

D. root-data-root partitioning

Correct Answer: C

Question 11:

Starting with ONTAP 9.5, what is the maximum number of HA pairs that are supported when using a SAN cluster?

A. 4

B. 2

C. 6

D. 8

Correct Answer: A

Question 12:

You are going to add a node to an existing cluster but first you must gather the appropriate information for the new node\’s management LIF. What two pieces of information is required to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. IP address

B. NTP server address

C. Service Processor Information

D. default gateway

Correct Answer: AD

Question 13:

Your customer wants to buy four new DS212C shelves with an 8 TB SATA drive. The customer also wants to know the usable aggregate size of this configuration.

In this scenario, which resource would you use to accomplish this task?

A. Fusion

B. Hardware Universe (HWU)

C. Interoperability Matrix Tool (IMT)

D. Config Advisor

Correct Answer: B

Question 14:

Click the Exhibit button.

After running Config Advisor 5.0 on a newly deployed ONTAP system, you are reviewing the output with the customer, and you find the warnings shown in the exhibit. Which action should you perform before you leave the customer site?

A. Explain to the customer that the warnings are not relevant because of the quad-path HA cabling.

B. Remove all of the SAS cables from behind the controllers and replace them with FC cables.

C. Explain to the customer that Config Advisor does not support the AFF A700 and FAS900 systems.

D. Review the Hardware Universe Web site for calling guidance.

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

You are planning to update your running switch environment. You must know that certain conditions exist before the FASTPATH software and the RCF on a NetApp CN1610 cluster switch can be installed.

Which condition must exist in this scenario?

A. All ISL ports must be moved to a different switch.

B. You can only update your switch environment within offline windows.

C. You must set the port configuration to default for all ports before running the portcfgdefault port-number command.

D. All cluster logical interfaces (LIFs) must be up and must not have been migrated.

Correct Answer: D

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Question 1:

What is the purpose of a predefined template on the FortiAnalyzer?

A. It can be edited and modified as required

B. It specifies the report layout which contains predefined texts, charts, and macros

C. It specifies report settings which contains time period, device selection, and schedule

D. It contains predefined data to generate mock reports

Correct Answer: B

Reference:

https://help.fortinet.com/fa/faz50hlp/56/5-6-2/

FMGFAZ/2300_Reports/0010_Predefined_reports.htm#:~:text=FortiAnalyzer includes a%

20number of,create and/or build reports.andtext=A template populates the %

20Layout,that is to be created.

https://help.fortinet.com/fa/faz50hlp/56/5-6-2/FMG- FAZ/2300_Reports/0010_Predefined_reports.htm

https://docs2.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/6.0.8/administration- guide/618245/predefined-reportstemplates-charts-and-macros

Question 2:

What FortiGate process caches logs when FortiAnalyzer is not reachable?

A. logfiled

B. sqlplugind

C. oftpd

D. miglogd

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://forum.fortinet.com/tm.aspx?m=143106

Question 3:

View the exhibit:

What does the 1000MB maximum for disk utilization refer to?

A. The disk quota for the FortiAnalyzer model

B. The disk quota for all devices in the ADOM

C. The disk quota for each device in the ADOM

D. The disk quota for the ADOM type

Correct Answer: B

https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/6.2.0/administration- guide/743670/configuring-logstorage-policy

Question 4:

If a hard disk fails on a FortiAnalyzer that supports software RAID, what should you do to bring the

FortiAnalyzer back to functioning normally, without losing data?

A. Hot swap the disk

B. Replace the disk and rebuild the RAID manually

C. Take no action if the RAID level supports a failed disk

D. Shut down FortiAnalyzer and replace the disk

Correct Answer: D

https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=FD46446#:~:text=On FortiAnalyzer% 2FFortiManager devices that,to exchanging the hard disk.

If a hard disk on a FortiAnalyzer unit fails, it must be replaced. On FortiAnalyzer devices that support hardware RAID, the hard disk can be replaced while the unit is still running ?known as hot swapping. On FortiAnalyzer units with software RAID, the device must be shutdown prior to exchanging the hard disk.

Reference: https://community.fortinet.com/t5/FortiAnalyzer/Technical-Note-How-to-swap-Hard-Disk-onFortiAnalyzer/ta-p/194997?externalID=FD41397#:~:text=If a hard disk on,process% 20know n as hot swapping

Question 5:

Which two statements express the advantages of grouping similar reports? (Choose two.)

A. Improve report completion time.

B. Conserve disk space on FortiAnalyzer by grouping multiple similar reports.

C. Reduce the number of hcache tables and improve auto-hcache completion time.

D. Provides a better summary of reports.

Correct Answer: AC

Question 6:

Logs are being deleted from one of the ADOMs earlier than the configured setting for archiving in the data policy.

What is the most likely problem?

A. CPU resources are too high

B. Logs in that ADOM are being forwarded, in real-time, to another FortiAnalyzer device

C. The total disk space is insufficient and you need to add other disk

D. The ADOM disk quota is set too low, based on log rates

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://help.fortinet.com/fmgr/50hlp/56/5-6-1/FMG-FAZ/1100_Storage/0017_Deleted device logs.htm

Question 7:

You\’ve moved a registered logging device out of one ADOM and into a new ADOM. What happens when you rebuild the new ADOM database?

A. FortiAnalyzer resets the disk quota of the new ADOM to default.

B. FortiAnalyzer migrates archive logs to the new ADOM.

C. FortiAnalyzer migrates analytics logs to the new ADOM.

D. FortiAnalyzer removes logs from the old ADOM.

Correct Answer: C

https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=FD40383

Question 8:

Which two of the following must you configure on FortiAnalyzer to email a FortiAnalyzer report externally? (Choose two.)

A. Mail server

B. Output profile

C. SFTP server

D. Report scheduling

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/6.0.2/administration- guide/598322/creatingoutput-profiles

Question 9:

By default, what happens when a log file reaches its maximum file size?

A. FortiAnalyzer overwrites the log files.

B. FortiAnalyzer stops logging.

C. FortiAnalyzer rolls the active log by renaming the file.

D. FortiAnalyzer forwards logs to syslog.

Correct Answer: C

Question 10:

For which two purposes would you use the command set log checksum? (Choose two.)

A. To help protect against man-in-the-middle attacks during log upload from FortiAnalyzer to an SFTP server

B. To prevent log modification or tampering

C. To encrypt log communications

D. To send an identical set of logs to a second logging server

Correct Answer: AB

Question 11:

Which clause is considered mandatory in SELECT statements used by the FortiAnalyzer to generate reports?

A. FROM

B. LIMIT

C. WHERE

D. ORDER BY

Correct Answer: A

https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=FD48500

Question 12:

You need to upgrade your FortiAnalyzer firmware.

What happens to the logs being sent to FortiAnalyzer from FortiGate during the time FortiAnalyzer is temporarily unavailable?

A. FortiAnalyzer uses log fetching to retrieve the logs when back online

B. FortiGate uses the miglogd process to cache the logs

C. The logfiled process stores logs in offline mode

D. Logs are dropped

Correct Answer: B

Question 13:

Which tabs do not appear when FortiAnalyzer is operating in Collector mode?

A. FortiView

B. Event Management

C. Device Manger

D. Reporting

Correct Answer: B

Question 14:

An administrator has moved FortiGate A from the root ADOM to ADOM1. Which two statements are true regarding logs? (Choose two.)

A. Analytics logs will be moved to ADOM1 from the root ADOM automatically.

B. Archived logs will be moved to ADOM1 from the root ADOM automatically.

C. Logs will be presented in both ADOMs immediately after the move.

D. Analytics logs will be moved to ADOM1 from the root ADOM after you rebuild the ADOM1 SQL database.

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://community.fortinet.com/t5/Fortinet-Forum/FW-Migration-between-ADOMs/m-p/32683? m=158008

Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements are true regarding enabling auto-cache on FortiAnalyzer? (Choose two.)

A. Report size will be optimized to conserve disk space on FortiAnalyzer.

B. Reports will be cached in the memory.

C. This feature is automatically enabled for scheduled reports.

D. Enabling auto-cache reduces report generation time for reports that require a long time to assemble datasets.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://help.fortinet.com/fa/faz50hlp/56/5-6-2/FMG-FAZ/2300_Reports/0025_Auto-cache.htm

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Question 1:

How does Monitoring Console (MC) initially identify the server role(s) of a new Splunk Instance?

A. The MC uses a REST endpoint to query the server.

B. Roles are manually assigned within the MC.

C. Roles are read from distsearch.conf.

D. The MC assigns all possible roles by default.

Correct Answer: C

Question 2:

A customer has asked for a five-node search head cluster (SHC), but does not have the storage budget to use a replication factor greater than 2. They would like to understand what might happen in terms of the users\’ ability to view historic scheduled search results if they log onto a search head which doesn\’t contain one of the 2 copies of a given search artifact.

Which of the following statements best describes what would happen in this scenario?

A. The search head that the user has logged onto will proxy the required artifact over to itself from a search head that currently holds a copy. A copy will also be replicated from that search head permanently, so it is available for future use.

B. Because the dispatch folder containing the search results is not present on the search head, the user will not be able to view the search results.

C. The user will not be able to see the results of the search until one of the search heads is restarted, forcing synchronization of all dispatched artifacts across all search heads.

D. The user will not be able to see the results of the search until the Splunk administrator issues the apply shcluster-bundle command on the search head deployer, forcing synchronization of all dispatched artifacts across all search heads.

Correct Answer: A

Question 3:

Monitoring Console (MC) health check configuration items are stored in which configuration file?

A. healthcheck.conf

B. alert_actions.conf

C. distsearch.conf

D. checklist.conf

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.1.0/DMC/Customizehealthcheck

Question 4:

What should be considered when running the following CLI commands with a goal of accelerating an index cluster migration to new hardware?

A. Data ingestion rate

B. Network latency and storage IOPS

C. Distance and location

D. SSL data encryption

Correct Answer: B

Question 5:

Which statement is true about subsearches?

A. Subsearches are faster than other types of searches.

B. Subsearches work best for joining two large result sets.

C. Subsearches run at the same time as their outer search.

D. Subsearches work best for small result sets.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://community.splunk.com/t5/Archive/Looking-for-way-to-explain-why-subsearches-are-soslow/m-p/479133

Question 6:

A customer has been using Splunk for one year, utilizing a single/all-in-one instance. This single Splunk server is now struggling to cope with the daily ingest rate. Also, Splunk has become a vital system in dayto-day operations making high availability a consideration for the Splunk service. The customer is unsure how to design the new environment topology in order to provide this.

Which resource would help the customer gather the requirements for their new architecture?

A. Direct the customer to the docs.splunk.com and tell them that all the information to help them select the right design is documented there.

B. Ask the customer to engage with the sales team immediately as they probably need a larger license.

C. Refer the customer to answers.splunk.com as someone else has probably already designed a system that meets their requirements.

D. Refer the customer to the Splunk Validated Architectures document in order to guide them through which approved architectures could meet their requirements.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.splunk.com/pdfs/technical-briefs/splunk-validated-architectures.pdf

Question 7:

The customer has an indexer cluster supporting a wide variety of search needs, including scheduled search, data model acceleration, and summary indexing. Here is an excerpt from the cluster mater\’s server.conf:

Which strategy represents the minimum and least disruptive change necessary to protect the searchability of the indexer cluster in case of indexer failure?

A. Enable maintenance mode on the CM to prevent excessive fix-up and bring the failed indexer back online.

B. Leave replication_factor=2, increase search_factor=2 and enable summary_replication.

C. Convert the cluster to multi-site and modify the server.conf to be site_replication_factor=2, site_search_factor=2.

D. Increase replication_factor=3, search_factor=2 to protect the data, and allow there to always be a searchable copy.

Correct Answer: D

Question 8:

In a single indexer cluster, where should the Monitoring Console (MC) be installed?

A. Deployer sharing with master cluster.

B. License master that has 50 clients or more.

C. Cluster master node

D. Production Search Head

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.1.0/DMC/WheretohostDMC

Question 9:

A customer\’s deployment server is overwhelmed with forwarder connections after adding an additional 1000 clients. The default phone home interval is set to 60 seconds. To reduce the number of connection failures to the DS what is recommended?

A. Create a tiered deployment server topology.

B. Reduce the phone home interval to 6 seconds.

C. Leave the phone home interval at 60 seconds.

D. Increase the phone home interval to 600 seconds.

Correct Answer: A

Question 10:

What is the Splunk PS recommendation when using the deployment server and building deployment apps?

A. Carefully design smaller apps with specific configuration that can be reused.

B. Only deploy Splunk PS base configurations via the deployment server.

C. Use $SPLUNK_HOME/etc/system/local configurations on forwarders and only deploy TAs via the deployment server.

D. Carefully design bigger apps containing multiple configs.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.splunk.com/en_us/blog/platform/adding-a-deployment-server-forwardermanagement-to-a-new-or-existing-splunk-cloud-or-splunk-enterprise-deployment.html

Question 11:

Which of the following processor occur in the indexing pipeline?

A. tcp out, syslog out

B. Regex replacement, annotator

C. Aggregator

D. UTF-8, linebreaker, header

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.1.0/Indexer/ Howindexingworks#Event_processing_and_the_data_pipeline

Question 12:

Which configuration item should be set to false to significantly improve data ingestion performance?

A. AUTO_KV_JSON

B. BREAK_ONLY_BEFORE_DATE

C. SHOULD_LINEMERGE

D. ANNOTATE_PUNCT

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.6/Data/Configureeventlinebreaking

Question 13:

When a bucket rolls from cold to frozen on a clustered indexer, which of the following scenarios occurs?

A. All replicated copies will be rolled to frozen; original copies will remain.

B. Replicated copies of the bucket will remain on all other indexers and the Cluster Master (CM) assigns a new primary bucket.

C. The bucket rolls to frozen on all clustered indexers simultaneously.

D. Nothing. Replicated copies of the bucket will remain on all other indexers until a local retention rule causes it to roll.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.1.0/Indexer/Bucketsandclusters

Question 14:

A site from a multi-site indexer cluster needs to be decommissioned. Which of the following actions must be taken?

A. Nothing. Decommissioning a site is not possible.

B. Create an alias for where the new data should be sent.

C. Remove the site from the list of available sites.

D. Remove the site from the list of available sites and create an alias for where the new data should be sent.

Correct Answer: D

Question 15:

A [script://] input sends data to a Splunk forwarder using which method?

A. UDP stream

B. TCP stream

C. Temporary file

D. STDOUT/STDERR

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/latest/Admin/inputsconf

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Question 1:

Jimmy, an attacker, knows that he can take advantage of poorly designed input validation routines to create or alter SQL commands to gain access to private data or execute commands in the database. What technique does Jimmy use to compromise a database?

A. Jimmy can submit user input that executes an operating system command to compromise a target system

B. Jimmy can gain control of system to flood the target system with requests, preventing legitimate users from gaining access

C. Jimmy can utilize an incorrect configuration that leads to access with higher-than expected privilege of the database

D. Jimmy can utilize this particular database threat that is an SQL injection technique to penetrate a target system

Correct Answer: D

Question 2:

Lori is a Certified Ethical Hacker as well as a Certified Hacking Forensics Investigator working as an IT security consultant. Lori has been hired on by Kiley Innovators, a large marketing firm that recently underwent a string of thefts and corporate espionage incidents. Lori is told that a rival marketing company came out with an exact duplicate product right before Kiley Innovators was about to release it. The executive team believes that an employee is leaking information to the rival company. Lori questions all employees, reviews server logs, and firewall logs; after which she finds nothing. Lori is then given permission to search through the corporate email system. She searches by email being sent to and sent from the rival marketing company. She finds one employee that appears to be sending very large email to this other marketing company, even though they should have no reason to be communicating with them. Lori tracks down the actual emails sent and upon opening them, only finds picture files attached to them. These files seem perfectly harmless, usually containing some kind of joke. Lori decides to use some special software to further examine the pictures and finds that each one had hidden text that was stored in each picture.

What technique was used by the Kiley Innovators employee to send information to the rival marketing company?

A. The Kiley Innovators employee used cryptography to hide the information in the emails sent

B. The method used by the employee to hide the information was logical watermarking

C. The employee used steganography to hide information in the picture attachments

D. By using the pictures to hide information, the employee utilized picture fuzzing

Correct Answer: C

Question 3:

How do you defend against Privilege Escalation?

A. Use encryption to protect sensitive data

B. Restrict the interactive logon privileges

C. Run services as unprivileged accounts

D. Allow security settings of IE to zero or Low

E. Run users and applications on the least privileges

Correct Answer: ABCE

Question 4:

What does ICMP (type 11, code 0) denote?

A. Source Quench

B. Destination Unreachable

C. Time Exceeded

D. Unknown Type

Correct Answer: C

Question 5:

The following script shows a simple SQL injection. The script builds an SQL query by concatenating hard-coded strings together with a string entered by the user:

The user is prompted to enter the name of a city on a Web form. If she enters Chicago, the query assembled by the script looks similar to the following:

SELECT * FROM OrdersTable WHERE ShipCity = \’Chicago\’

How will you delete the OrdersTable from the database using SQL Injection?

A. Chicago\’; drop table OrdersTable –

B. Delete table\’blah\’; OrdersTable –

C. EXEC; SELECT * OrdersTable > DROP –

D. cmdshell\’; \’del c:\sql\mydb\OrdersTable\’ //

Correct Answer: A

Question 6:

Jason works in the sales and marketing department for a very large advertising agency located in Atlanta. Jason is working on a very important marketing campaign for his company\’s largest client. Before the project could be completed and implemented, a competing advertising company comes out with the exact same marketing materials and advertising, thus rendering all the work done for Jason\’s client unusable. Jason is questioned about this and says he has no idea how all the material ended up in the hands of a competitor. Without any proof, Jason\’s company cannot do anything except move on. After working on another high profile client for about a month, all the marketing and sales material again ends up in the hands of another competitor and is released to the public before Jason\’s company can finish the project. Once again, Jason says that he had nothing to do with it and does not know how this could have happened. Jason is given leave with pay until they can figure out what is going on.

Jason\’s supervisor decides to go through his email and finds a number of emails that were sent to the competitors that ended up with the marketing material. The only items in the emails were attached jpg files, but nothing else. Jason\’s supervisor opens the picture files, but cannot find anything out of the ordinary with them.

What technique has Jason most likely used?

A. Stealth Rootkit Technique

B. ADS Streams Technique

C. Snow Hiding Technique

D. Image Steganography Technique

Correct Answer: D

Question 7:

In TCP communications there are 8 flags; FIN, SYN, RST, PSH, ACK, URG, ECE, CWR.

These flags have decimal numbers assigned to them:

FIN = 1

SYN = 2 RST = 4 PSH = 8 ACK = 16 URG = 32 ECE = 64 CWR = 128

Jason is the security administrator of ASPEN Communications. He analyzes some traffic using Wireshark and has enabled the following filters.

What is Jason trying to accomplish here?

A. SYN, FIN, URG and PSH

B. SYN, SYN/ACK, ACK

C. RST, PSH/URG, FIN

D. ACK, ACK, SYN, URG

Correct Answer: B

Question 8:

In Trojan terminology, what is required to create the executable file chess.exe as shown below?

A. Mixer

B. Converter

C. Wrapper

D. Zipper

Correct Answer: C

Question 9:

A common technique for luring e-mail users into opening virus-launching attachments is to send messages that would appear to be relevant or important to many of their potential recipients. One way of accomplishing this feat is to make the virus-carrying messages appear to come from some type of business entity retailing sites, UPS, FEDEX, CITIBANK or a major provider of a common service.

Here is a fraudulent e-mail claiming to be from FedEx regarding a package that could not be delivered. This mail asks the receiver to open an attachment in order to obtain the FEDEX tracking number for picking up the package. The attachment contained in this type of e-mail activates a virus.

Vendors send e-mails like this to their customers advising them not to open any files attached with the mail, as they do not include attachments.

Fraudulent e-mail and legit e-mail that arrives in your inbox contain the fedex.com as the sender of the mail.

How do you ensure if the e-mail is authentic and sent from fedex.com?

A. Verify the digital signature attached with the mail, the fake mail will not have Digital ID at all

B. Check the Sender ID against the National Spam Database (NSD)

C. Fake mail will have spelling/grammatical errors

D. Fake mail uses extensive images, animation and flash content

Correct Answer: A

Question 10:

In what stage of Virus life does a stealth virus gets activated with the user performing certain actions such as running an infected program?

A. Design

B. Elimination

C. Incorporation

D. Replication

E. Launch

F. Detection

Correct Answer: E

Question 11:

Maintaining a secure Web server requires constant effort, resources, and vigilance from an organization. Securely administering a Web server on a daily basis is an essential aspect of Web server security. Maintaining the security of a Web server will usually involve the following steps:

1.

Configuring, protecting, and analyzing log files

2.

Backing up critical information frequently

3.

Maintaining a protected authoritative copy of the organization\’s Web content

4.

Establishing and following procedures for recovering from compromise

5.

Testing and applying patches in a timely manner

6.

Testing security periodically.

In which step would you engage a forensic investigator?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

F. 6

Correct Answer: D

Question 12:

In Buffer Overflow exploit, which of the following registers gets overwritten with return address of the exploit code?

A. EEP

B. ESP

C. EAP

D. EIP

Correct Answer: D

Question 13:

Bret is a web application administrator and has just read that there are a number of surprisingly common web application vulnerabilities that can be exploited by unsophisticated attackers with easily available tools on the Internet. He has also

read that when an organization deploys a web application, they invite the world to send HTTP requests. Attacks buried in these requests sail past firewalls, filters, platform hardening, SSL, and IDS without notice because they are inside legal

HTTP requests. Bret is determined to weed out vulnerabilities.

What are some of the common vulnerabilities in web applications that he should be concerned about?

A. Non-validated parameters, broken access control, broken account and session management, cross-site scripting and buffer overflows are just a few common vulnerabilities

B. Visible clear text passwords, anonymous user account set as default, missing latest security patch, no firewall filters set and no SSL configured are just a few common vulnerabilities

C. No SSL configured, anonymous user account set as default, missing latest security patch, no firewall filters set and an inattentive system administrator are just a few common vulnerabilities

D. No IDS configured, anonymous user account set as default, missing latest security patch, no firewall filters set and visible clear text passwords are just a few common vulnerabilities

Correct Answer: A

Question 14:

Bob waits near a secured door, holding a box. He waits until an employee walks up to the secured door and uses the special card in order to access the restricted area of the target company. Just as the employee opens the door, Bob walks up to the employee (still holding the box) and asks the employee to hold the door open so that he can enter. What is the best way to undermine the social engineering activity of tailgating?

A. Issue special cards to access secure doors at the company and provide a one-time only brief description of use of the special card

B. Educate and enforce physical security policies of the company to all the employees on a regular basis

C. Setup a mock video camera next to the special card reader adjacent to the secure door

D. Post a sign that states, “no tailgating” next to the special card reader adjacent to the secure door

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

Ursula is a college student at a University in Amsterdam. Ursula originally went to college to study engineering but later changed to marine biology after spending a month at sea with her friends. These friends frequently go out to sea to follow and harass fishing fleets that illegally fish in foreign waters. Ursula eventually wants to put companies practicing illegal fishing out of business. Ursula decides to hack into the parent company\’s computers and destroy critical data knowing fully well that, if caught, she probably would be sent to jail for a very long time. What would Ursula be considered?

A. Ursula would be considered a gray hat since she is performing an act against illegal activities.

B. She would be considered a suicide hacker.

C. She would be called a cracker.

D. Ursula would be considered a black hat.

Correct Answer: B

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Question 1:

A stand-alone LTM device is to be paired with a second LTM device to create an active/standby pair. The current stand-alone LTM device is in production and has several VLANs with floating IP addresses configured. The appropriate device

service clustering (DSC) configurations are in place on both LTM devices.

Which two non-specific DSC settings should the LTM Specialist configure on the second LTM device to ensure no errors are reported when attempting to synchronize for the first time? (Choose two.)

A. pools

B. VLANs

C. default route

D. self IP addresses

Correct Answer: BD

Question 2:

An IT administrator wants to log which server is being load balanced to by a user with IP address 10.10.10.25. Which iRule should the LTM Specialist use to fulfill the request?

A. when SERVER_CONNECTED { if { [IP::addr [IP::remote_addr]] equals 10.10.10.25]} { log local0. “client 10.10.10.25 connected to pool member [IP::addr [LB::server addr]]” } }

B. when CLIENT_ACCEPTED { if { [IP::addr [clientside [IP::remote_addr]] equals 10.10.10.25]} { log local0. “client 10.10.10.25 connected to pool member [IP::addr [LB::server addr]]” } }

C. when SERVER_CONNECTED { if { [IP::addr [clientside [IP::remote_addr]] equals 10.10.10.25]} { log local0. “client 10.10.10.25 connected to pool member [IP::addr [LB::server addr]]” } }

D. when CLIENT_ACCEPTED { if { [IP::addr [IP::remote_addr] equals 10.10.10.25]} { log local0. “client 10.10.10.25 connected to pool member [IP::addr [LB::server addr]]” } }

Correct Answer: C

Question 3:

An LTM device pool has suddenly been marked down by a monitor. The pool consists of members 10.0.1.1:443 and 10.0.1.2:443 and are verified to be listening. The affected virtual server is 10.0.0.1:80. Which two tools should the LTM Specialist use to troubleshoot the associated HTTPS pool monitor via the command line interface? (Choose two.)

A. curl

B. telnet

C. ssldump

D. tcpdump

Correct Answer: AC

Question 4:

An application owner claims an LTM device is delaying delivery of an HTTP application. The LTM device has two VLANs, an internal and an external. The application servers reside on the internal VLAN. The virtual server and clients reside on

the external VLAN.

With appropriate filters applied, which solution is most efficient for obtaining packet captures in order to investigate the claim of delayed delivery?

A. one capture on interface 0.0

B. one capture on the internal interface

C. one capture on the external interface

D. one capture on the management interface

Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

An LTM Specialist configures a new HTTP virtual server on an LTM device external VLAN. The web servers are connected to the LTM device internal VLAN. Clients trying to connect to the virtual server are unable to establish a connection. A

packet capture shows an HTTP response from a web server to the client and then a reset from the client to the web server.

From which two locations could the packet capture have been collected? (Choose two.)

A. network interface of web server

B. network interface of client machine

C. internal VLAN interface of the LTM device

D. external VLAN interface of the LTM device

E. management VLAN interface of the LTM device

Correct Answer: AB

Question 6:

An LTM Specialist is creating a custom EAV monitor.

In which directory should the LTM Specialist upload the script?

A. /usr/monitor

B. /usr/monitors

C. /config/monitors

D. /usr/bin/monitors

E. /config/templates

Correct Answer: C

Question 7:

An LTM Specialist configures the following iRule on an LTM device: when HTTP_REQUEST { if {[string tolower [HTTP::uri]] contains “/URI1/” } { pool Pool1 } elseif {[string tolower [HTTP::uri]] contains “/URI2/” } { pool Pool2 } elseif {[string tolower [HTTP::uri]] contains “/URI3/” } { pool Pool3 } else { pool Pool4} } Given the following request: http://www.example.comURI1/index.html?fu=barandpass=1234 Which pool will be selected by the iRule?

A. Pool1

B. Pool2

C. Pool3

D. Pool4

Correct Answer: D

Question 8:

A web developer has created a custom HTTP call to a backend application. The HTTP headers being sent by the HTTP call are: GET / HTTP/1.1 User-Agent: MyCustomApp (v1.0) Accept: text/html Cache-Control: no-cache Connection: keep-alive CookiE. somecookie=1 The backend server is responding with the following: HTTP/1.1 400 Bad Request DatE. Wed, 20 Jul 2012 17:22:41 GMT Connection: close Why is the HTTP web server responding with a HTTP 400 Bad Request?

A. The client request does NOT include a Host header.

B. The User-Agent header contains an invalid character.

C. The web server is NOT expecting a keep-alive connection.

D. The web server is configured to accept HTTP 1.0 requests only.

Correct Answer: A

Question 9:

A client is attempting to log in to a web application that requires authentication. The following HTTP headers are sent by the client: GET /owa/ HTTP/1.1 Authorization: Basic dXNlcm5hbWU6cGFzc3dvcmQ= User-Agent: curl/7.26.0 Host: 10.0.0.14 Accept: */* Accept-EncodinG. gzip,deflate The web server is responding with the following HTTP headers: HTTP/1.1 401 Unauthorized Content-TypE. text/html Server: Microsoft-IIS/7.5 WWW-AuthenticatE. NTLM DatE. Wed, 16 Aug 1977 19:12:31 GMT Content-LengtH. 1293 The client has checked the login credentials and believes the correct details are being entered. What is the reason the destination web server is sending an HTTP 401 response?

A. The username and password are incorrect.

B. The server has an incorrect date configured.

C. The client is using the wrong type of browser.

D. The wrong authentication mechanism is being used.

Correct Answer: D

Question 10:

The LTM device is configured to provide load balancing to a set of web servers that implement access control lists (ACL) based on the source IP address of the client. The ACL is at the network level and the web server is configured to send a

TCP reset back to the client if it is NOT permitted to connect.

The virtual server is configured with the default OneConnect profile.

The ACL is defined on the web server as:

Permit: 192.168.136.0/24

Deny: 192.168.116.0/24

The packet capture is taken of two individual client flows to a virtual server with IP address 192.168.136.100.

Client A – Src IP 192.168.136.1 – Virtual Server 192.168.136.100:

Clientside:

09:35:11.073623 IP 192.168.136.1.55684 > 192.168.136.100.80: S 869998901:869998901(0) win 8192

09:35:11.073931 IP 192.168.136.100.80 > 192.168.136.1.55684: S 2273668949:2273668949(0) ack 869998902 win 4380

09:35:11.074928 IP 192.168.136.1.55684 > 192.168.136.100.80: . ack 1 win 16425

09:35:11.080936 IP 192.168.136.1.55684 > 192.168.136.100.80: P 1:299(298) ack 1 win 16425

09:35:11.081029 IP 192.168.136.100.80 > 192.168.136.1.55684: . ack 299 win 4678

Serverside:

09:35:11.081022 IP 192.168.136.1.55684 > 192.168.116.128.80: S 685865802:685865802(0) win 4380

09:35:11.081928 IP 192.168.116.128.80 > 192.168.136.1.55684: S 4193259095:4193259095(0) ack 685865803 win 5840

09:35:11.081943 IP 192.168.136.1.55684 > 192.168.116.128.80: . ack 1 win 4380

09:35:11.081955 IP 192.168.136.1.55684 > 192.168.116.128.80: P 1:299(298) ack 1 win 4380

09:35:11.083765 IP 192.168.116.128.80 > 192.168.136.1.55684: . ack 299 win 108

Client B – Src IP 192.168.116.1 – Virtual Server 192.168.136.100:

Clientside:

09:36:11.244040 IP 192.168.116.1.55769 > 192.168.136.100.80: S 3320618938:3320618938(0) win 8192

09:36:11.244152 IP 192.168.136.100.80 > 192.168.116.1.55769: S 3878120666:3878120666(0) ack 3320618939 win 4380

09:36:11.244839 IP 192.168.116.1.55769 > 192.168.136.100.80: . ack 1 win 16425

09:36:11.245830 IP 192.168.116.1.55769 > 192.168.136.100.80: P 1:299(298) ack 1 win 16425

09:36:11.245922 IP 192.168.136.100.80 > 192.168.116.1.55769: . ack 299 win 4678

Serverside:

09:36:11.245940 IP 192.168.136.1.55684 > 192.168.116.128.80: P 599:897(298) ack 4525 win 8904

09:36:11.247847 IP 192.168.116.128.80 > 192.168.136.1.55684: P 4525:5001(476) ack 897 win 142

Why was the second client flow permitted by the web server?

A. A global SNAT is defined.

B. SNAT automap was enabled on the virtual server.

C. The idle TCP session from the first client was re-used.

D. A source address persistence profile is assigned to the virtual server.

Correct Answer: C

Question 11:

An LTM Specialist is troubleshooting an issue with a new virtual server. When connecting through the virtual server, clients receive the message “Unable to connect” in the browser, although connections directly to the pool member show the application is functioning correctly. The LTM device configuration is: ltm virtual /Common/vs_https { destination /Common/10.10.1.110:443 ip-protocol udp mask 255.255.255.255

pool /Common/pool_https profiles { /Common/udp { } } translate-address enabled translate-port enabled vlans-disabled } ltm pool /Common/pool_https { members { /Common/172.16.20.1:443 { address 172.16.20.1 } } } What issue is the LTM Specialist experiencing?

A. The virtual server is disabled on all VLANs.

B. The pool member is marked down by a monitor.

C. The pool member is marked down administratively.

D. The virtual server is configured for the incorrect protocol.

Correct Answer: D

Question 12:

An LTM Specialist configured a virtual server to load balance a custom application. The application works when it is tested from within the firewall but it fails when tested externally. The pool member address is 192.168.200.10:80. A capture from an external client shows: GET /index.jsp HTTP/1.1 Host: 207.206.201.100 User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows NT 6.1; WOW64; rv:15.0) Gecko/20100101 Firefox/15.0.1 Accept: text/html,application/xhtml xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Connection: keep-alive HTTP/1.1 302 Found DatE. Wed, 17 Oct 2012 23:09:55 GMT Server: Apache/2.2.15 (CentOS) Location: http://192.168.200.10/user/home.jsp Content-LengtH. 304 Connection: close What is the solution to this issue?

A. Assign a SNAT pool to the virtual server.

B. Add a Web Acceleration Profile to the virtual server.

C. Configure redirect rewrite option in the HTTP profile.

D. Configure a content filter on the backend web server.

Correct Answer: C

Question 13:

An LTM Specialist is troubleshooting a problem on an eCommerce website. The user browses the online store using port 80, adding items to the shopping cart. The user then clicks the “Checkout” button on the site, which redirects the user to port 443 for the checkout process. Suddenly, the user\’s shopping cart is shown as empty. The shopping cart data is stored in memory on the server, and the default source address persistence profile is used on both virtual servers. How should the LTM Specialist resolve this issue?

A. Add an HTTP profile to both virtual servers.

B. Enable SNAT Automap on both virtual servers.

C. Create a custom persistence profile and enable “Map Proxies.”

D. Create a custom persistence profile and enable “Match Across Services.”

Correct Answer: D

Question 14:

Which command should an LTM Specialist use on the command line interface to show the health of RAID array hard drives?

A. tmsh show /sys raid disk

B. tmsh show /ltm raid disk

C. tmsh show /sys raid status

D. tmsh show /ltm disk status

Correct Answer: A

Question 15:

The active LTM device in a high-availability (HA) pair performs a failover at the same time the network team reports an outage of a switch on the network. Which two items could have caused the failover event? (Choose two.)

A. a VLAN fail-safe setting

B. a monitor on a pool in an HA group

C. the standby LTM that was rebooted

D. an Auditor role that has access to the GUI

E. the standby LTM that lost connectivity on the failover VLAN

Correct Answer: AB

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Question 1:

Which of the following is a reason to use WEP over WPA?

A. Device compatibility

B. Increased security

C. TACACS

D. Multifactor authentication

Correct Answer: A

WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) was introduced when the 802.11 standard for Wi-Fi networks was launched. It allows the use of a 64-bit or 128-bit key. However, researchers discovered vulnerabilities in WEP in 2001 and proved that it was

possible to break into any WEP network by using a brute-force method to decipher the key. Using WEP is not recommended.

WPA, which stands for Wi-Fi Protected Access, is a newer standard and is much more secure.

Question 2:

Which of the following types of scripts would be seen on the user end of a web page?

A. .bat

B. .js

C. .sh

D. .vbs

Correct Answer: D

Question 3:

A user\’s computer is displaying a black screen. The technician restarts the computer, but the OS still does not load. The technician discovers the OS was patched the previous evening.

Which of the following should the technician attempt NEXT?

A. Reboot into safe mode and roll back the updates

B. Repair the Windows Registry

C. Configure boot options in the BIOS

D. Disable Windows services and applications

Correct Answer: A

Question 4:

A network administrator notifies a technician that the company is experiencing a DDoS attack. Several internal Windows PCs are the source of the traffic. The network administrator gives the technician the Windows computer names and states they be scanned and cleaned immediately. With which of the following types of infections are the PCs MOST likely infected? (Select two.)

A. Spyware

B. Zombies

C. Virus

D. Ransomware

E. Worm

F. Botnet

Correct Answer: BE

Question 5:

A small office calls a technician to investigate some “invalid certificate” errors from a concerned user. The technician observes that whenever the user to access a secure website from the Windows desktop, this error is encountered. No other users in the office are experiencing this error. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT? (Choose two.)

A. Remove any proxy servers configured on the user\’s browsers.

B. Assist the user with purchasing an SSL certificate and save the certificate to the desktop.

C. Disable the SPI firewall on the office\’s gateway and any other routers.

D. Instruct the user to ignore the certificate error since the user is connecting to a secure website.

E. Create an outbound rule in Windows Firewall named after the user\’s homepage.

F. Run anti-malware scans and download the latest Windows updates.

Correct Answer: AF

Question 6:

A technician has just finished installing a secondary OS on a workstation. After rebooting the computer, the technician receives the following error: No OS found. The technician confirms the boot.ini file is correct.

Which of the following is MOST likely causing this error?

A. The computer has GRUB Legacy installed

B. Windows Startup services are not running

C. An incompatible partition is marked as active

D. An unsupported version of Windows is installed

Correct Answer: C

Question 7:

A technician is called to troubleshoot a user\’s Windows workstation that fails to boot. The user reports that, after updating the workstation\’s graphics driver to a beta version, the machine gives a “Stop” error on every boot

Which of the following should the technician complete to resolve the issue?

A. Boot the workstation in safe mode and disable the graphics driver system tray menu

B. Boot the workstation in safe mode with networking and install the latest stable graphics driver.

C. Boot the workstation in safe mode and disable Windows driver signing requirements

D. Boot the workstation in safe mode with Command Prompt and enable Driver Verifier with standard settings

Correct Answer: A

Question 8:

A technician is repairing a computer. Which of the following should the technician do to protect the computer from accidental voltage spikes?

A. Practice electrical fire safety.

B. Clean tools properly before use.

C. Remove any jewelry.

D. Connect a proper ESD strap.

Correct Answer: D

Question 9:

A technician is troubleshooting a print issue on a Windows computer and want to disable the printer to test a theory, Which of the following should the technician use to accomplish this?

A. Devices and Printer

B. Sync Center

C. Device Manager

D. Power Option

Correct Answer: C

Question 10:

Which of the following devices provides protection against brownouts?

A. battery backup

B. surge suppressor

C. rack grounding

D. line conditioner

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

Which of the following is a community supported, open source OS used for both services and workstations?

A. IOS

B. Windows 10

C. Linux

D. OS X

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

A user who is running Windows 10 logs into a machine and notices that shared drives are missing, the “My Documents” folder is empty, and personal settings are reset. Which of the following would be required to resolve the issue?

A. Remove the registry entry and rename the local account folder

B. Delete or rename the local user folder

C. Run DISM and re-add the local power user account

D. Remove the user account in Credential Manager and restart the PC

Correct Answer: C

Question 13:

A technician has been asked to recommend antivirus software for a home PC, but the user does not want to pay for a license. Which of the following license type should the technician recommend?

A. Open license

B. Personal license

C. Corporate license

D. Enterprise license

Correct Answer: A

Question 14:

A systems administrator needs to add security to the server room.

Which of the following would provide the BEST security for the room? (Choose two.)

A. Universal serial bus locks

B. Personal identity verification cards

C. Privacy screen

D. Entry control roster

E. Door locks

F. Privacy window

Correct Answer: EF

Question 15:

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of an ESD mat?

A. Protects against accidental static discharge

B. Protects against dust/dirt contamination

C. Protects against accidental scratches

D. Protects against accidental water damage

Correct Answer: A

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Question 1:

Evaluate the SQL statement: TRUNCATE TABLE DEPT;

Which three are true about the SQL statement? (Choose three.)

A. It releases the storage space used by the table.

B. It does not release the storage space used by the table.

C. You can roll back the deletion of rows after the statement executes.

D. You can NOT roll back the deletion of rows after the statement executes.

E. An attempt to use DESCRIBE on the DEPT table after the TRUNCATE statement executes will display an error.

F. You must be the owner of the table or have DELETE ANY TABLE system privileges to truncate the DEPT table

Correct Answer: ADF

A: The TRUNCATE TABLE Statement releases storage space used by the table,

D: Can not rollback the deletion of rows after the statement executes,

F: You must be the owner of the table or have DELETE ANY TABLE system privilege to truncate the DEPT table.

Incorrect answer: C is not true D is not true E is not true

Refer: Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 8-18

Question 2:

The ORDERS TABLE belongs to the user OE. OE has granted the SELECT privilege on the ORDERS table to the user HR.

Which statement would create a synonym ORD so that HR can execute the following query successfully? SELECT * FROM ord;

A. CREATE SYNONYM ord FOR orders; This command is issued by OE.

B. CREATE PUBLIC SYNONYM ord FOR orders; This command is issued by OE.

C. CREATE SYNONYM ord FOR oe.orders; This command is issued by the database administrator.

D. CREATE PUBLIC SYNONYM ord FOR oe.orders; This command is issued by the database administrator.

Correct Answer: D

Creating a Synonym for an Object

To refer to a table that is owned by another user, you need to prefix the table name with the name of the user who created it, followed by a period. Creating a synonym eliminates the need to qualify the object name with the schema and

provides you with an alternative name for a table, view, sequence, procedure, or other objects.

This method can be especially useful with lengthy object names, such as views.

In the syntax:

PUBLIC Creates a synonym that is accessible to all users synonym Is the name of the synonym to be created object Identifies the object for which the synonym is created Guidelines The object cannot be contained in a package.

A private synonym name must be distinct from all other objects that are owned by the same user. If you try to execute the following command (alternative B, issued by OE):

Question 3:

View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PROMOTIONS table.

You have to generate a report that displays the promo name and start date for all promos that started after the last promo in the \’INTERNET\’ category.

Which query would give you the required output?

A. SELECT promo_name, promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ALL (SELECT MAX(promo_begin_date) FROM promotions ) AND promo_category = \’INTERNET\’;

B. SELECT promo_name, promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date IN (SELECT promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_category=\’INTERNET\’);

C. SELECT promo_name, promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ALL (SELECT promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_category = \’INTERNET\’);

D. SELECT promo_name, promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ANY (SELECT promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_category = \’INTERNET\’);

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:

Which two are true about aggregate functions? (Choose two.)

A. You can use aggregate functions in any clause of a SELECT statement.

B. You can use aggregate functions only in the column list of the select clause and in the WHERE clause of a SELECT statement.

C. You can mix single row columns with aggregate functions in the column list of a SELECT statement by grouping on the single row columns.

D. You can pass column names, expressions, constants, or functions as parameter to an aggregate function.

E. You can use aggregate functions on a table, only by grouping the whole table as one single group.

F. You cannot group the rows of a table by more than one column while using aggregate functions.

Correct Answer: AD

Question 5:

Which SQL statement displays the date March 19, 2001 in a format that appears as “Nineteenth of March 2001 12:00:00 AM”?

A. SELECT TO_CHAR(TO_DATE(\’19-Mar-2001\’, `DD-Mon-YYYY\’), `fmDdspth “of” Month YYYY fmHH:MI:SS AM\’) NEW_DATE FROM dual;

B. SELECT TO_CHAR(TO_DATE(\’19-Mar-2001\’, `DD-Mon-YYYY\’), `Ddspth “of” Month YYYY fmHH:MI:SS AM\’) NEW_DATE FROM dual;

C. SELECT TO_CHAR(TO_DATE(\’19-Mar-2001\’, `DD-Mon-YYYY\’), `fmDdspth “of” Month YYYY HH:MI:SS AM\’) NEW_DATE FROM dual;

D. SELECT TO_CHAR(TO_DATE(\’19-Mar-2001\’, `DD-Mon-YYYY), `fmDdspth “of” Month YYYYfmtHH:HI:SS AM\’) NEW_DATE FROM dual;

Correct Answer: A

Question 6:

In which four clauses can a sub query be used? (Choose four.)

A. in the INTO clause of an INSERT statement

B. in the FROM clause of a SELECT statement

C. in the GROUP BY clause of a SELECT statement

D. in the WHERE clause of a SELECT statement

E. in the SET clause of an UPDATE statement

F. in the VALUES clause of an INSERT statement

Correct Answer: ABDE

A: a sub query is valid on the INTO clause of an ISERT Statement

B: a sub query can be used in the FROM clause of a SELECT statement

D: a sub query can be used in the WHERE clause of a SELECT statement,

E: a sub query can be used in the SET clauses of an UPDATE statement,

Incorrect answer:

C sub query cannot be used

F: is incorrect.

Refer: Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 6-5

Question 7:

The PRODUCTS table has these columns:

PRODUCT_ID NUMBER(4)

PRODUCT_NAME VARCHAR2(45)

PRICE NUMBER(8,2)

Evaluate this SQL statement:

SELECT *

FROM PRODUCTS

ORDER BY price, product_name;

What is true about the SQL statement?

A. The results are not sorted.

B. The results are sorted numerically.

C. The results are sorted alphabetically.

D. The results are sorted numerically and then alphabetically.

Correct Answer: D

the result is sort by price which is numeric and follow by product_name which is alphabetically.

Incorrect answer: A the results are sorted B the results are sorted with alphabetically as well C the results are sorted with numerically as well

Refer: Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 2-2

Question 8:

Which two statements are true regarding tables? (Choose two.)

A. A table name can be of any length.

B. A table can have any number of columns.

C. A column that has a DEFAULT value cannot store null values.

D. A table and a view can have the same name in the same schema.

E. A table and a synonym can have the same name in the same schema.

F. The same table name can be used in different schemas in the same database.

Correct Answer: EF

Synonyms

Synonyms are database objects that enable you to call a table by another name. You can create synonyms to give an alternative name to a table.

Question 9:

Examine the structure of the TRANSACTIONS table:

Name Null Type

TRANS_ID NOT NULL NUMBER(3)

CUST_NAME VARCHAR2(30)

TRANS_DATE DATE

TRANS_AMT NUMBER(10,2)

You want to display the transaction date and specify whether it is a weekday or weekend.

Evaluate the following two queries:

Which statement is true regarding the above queries?

A. Both give wrong results.

B. Both give the correct result.

C. Only the first query gives the correct result.

D. Only the second query gives the correct result.

Correct Answer: C

Range Conditions Using the BETWEEN Operator

Use the BETWEEN operator to display rows based on a range of values:

SELECT last_name, salary

FROM employees

WHERE salary BETWEEN 2500 AND 3500;

Range Conditions Using the BETWEEN Operator

You can display rows based on a range of values using the BETWEEN operator. The range that you specify contains a lower limit and an upper limit.

The SELECT statement in the slide returns rows from the EMPLOYEES table for any employee whose salary is between $2,500 and $3,500.

Values that are specified with the BETWEEN operator are inclusive. However, you must specify the lower limit first.

You can also use the BETWEEN operator on character values:

SELECT last_name

FROM employees

WHERE last_name BETWEEN \’King\’ AND \’Smith\’;

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Question 1:

Your customer has three sites defined in the system, site 1, site 2, and site 3. All sites have their own billing strategy defined and Balance Forward Billing is enabled for site 1 and Site 2 at the account level. How will bills be generated?

A. Sites 1, 2, and 3 activities will be included in a single bill.

B. Sites 2 and 3 activities will be included in a single bill.

C. Sites 1 and 2 activities will be included in a single bill.

D. Sites 1 and 3 activities will be included in a single bill.

Correct Answer: C

Question 2:

You have created two transactions with a 30-day payment term. The first transaction is on January 29, 2015 and the second transaction is on January 31, 2015. The invoice date is the same as the system date. Both transactions are assigned an unsigned receipt method that has the lead days set to 60, number of bills receivable rule set to one per customer, and the bills receivable maturity date rule set to latest. Which statement is true when the create bills receivable batch is processed for a customer on January 31, 2015?

A. A Bills Receivable is created with the issue date as January 31, 2015 and the maturity date as March 2, 2015.

B. A Bills Receivable is created with the issue date as January 31, 2015 and the maturity date as February 28, 2015.

C. A Bills Receivable is created with the issue date as January 31, 2015 and the maturity date as March 30, 2015.

D. Two Bills Receivable transactions are created with maturity dates as March 30, 2015 and April 1, 2015.

E. Two Bills Receivable transactions are created with the issue dates as January 29, 2015 and January 31, 2015.

F. Two Bills Receivable transactions are created with the issue date and accounting date as January 29, 2015 and January 31, 2015, respectively.

Correct Answer: D

Question 3:

You are not able to initiate a bankruptcy request at the customer site level on behalf of a customer. Which two conditions are failing? (Choose two.)

A. Preferences must be enabled and Enable Bankruptcy must be set to Yes for the customer.

B. The Collections Administrator creates a bankruptcy request in the Customer Relationship Management (CRM) application and a collector should have the Collection Manager and Customer Profile Administrator roles assigned.

C. Preferences must be enabled and Enable Bankruptcy must be set to Yes in Manage Collections Preferences in the Functional Setup Manager for Advanced Collections.

D. The Collections Manager creates a bankruptcy request in the Customer Relationship Management (CRM) application and a collector should be configured as a resource.

E. Bankruptcy must be applied at the customer level, which includes all transactions at the customer, account, and Site levels.

F. The customer does not have the default strategy and default collector assigned at the customer account and site level.

Correct Answer: BC

Question 4:

Identify three activities that you can perform from the Collections Dashboard. (Choose three.)

A. Verify Customer Payments.

B. Assign a Collector to a delinquent customer.

C. View the Total Amount Due for delinquent customers.

D. Record an activity to create a task or tasks to follow up on a delinquent customer.

E. Update the work status of a work item for a delinquent customer.

Correct Answer: BDE

Question 5:

You have created a sales invoice for $900 USD with an item line of $750 USD and a tax rate of 20%. The

customer has made a payment of $500 USD and you are required to process the cash application to apply

the $500 USD to the item line and $0 USD to tax.

How would you achieve this?

A. Set the credit classification revenue recognition policy to look for Line First and Tax Later.

B. Create a Memo Line or receivable activity to have the check box selected for Apply Item Line First.

C. Set Application Rule Set to Line First–Tax After at the transaction type level and/or a default value at system options.

D. Set Application Rule Set to Line First–Tax After at the transaction source level and/or a default value at the receipt method.

E. Set the payment terms revenue recognition policy to look for Line First and Tax Later.

Correct Answer: C

Question 6:

Which two items are required for customer invoicing? (Choose two.)

A. Lockbox

B. Customers

C. Remit-to-address

D. Customer Profile Class

Correct Answer: AD

Question 7:

Which two determinant types are used in reference data assignment? (Choose two.)

A. Business Unit

B. Account Segment

C. Project Segment

D. Project unit

Correct Answer: AD

Question 8:

A Billing Specialist creates an adjustment for an incorrect invoice that exceeds a user\’s approval limit.

What is the status of the adjustment?

A. Pending Approval

B. Forwarded for Approval

C. Pending Research

D. Approval Required

Correct Answer: A

Question 9:

A Billing Specialist runs the Create Automatic Billing Adjustments program to automatically adjust the

remaining balance on open invoices, but some of the amounts have exceeded the Billing Specialist\’s

approval limits.

What would be the result?

A. The program creates the adjustments with a status of Pending Approval for the amount that exceeds the Billing Specialist\’s approval limits.

B. The program can be run only if the amount is within the Billing Specialist\’s approval limits.

C. The program creates the adjustments with a status of Rejected for the amount that exceeds the Billing Specialist\’s approval limits.

D. The program creates the adjustments only for the amounts within the Billing Specialist\’s approval limits.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/A60725_05/html/comnls/us/ar/adjust.htm#n_adj

Question 10:

When a customer opts to make a payment by a credit card, this receipt is identified as a(n) _______________.

A. miscellaneous receipt

B. quick cash receipt

C. manual receipt

D. automatic receipt

E. AutoLockbox receipt

Correct Answer: D

Question 11:

Your customer has a state tax of 20% and a city tax of 10% as non-inclusive tax rates that are applicable on a transaction line. Your invoice has two lines: Line1 with $600 USD and Line2 with $400 USD. What will be the resulting tax and invoice amounts for your tax invoice?

A. state tax of $166.67 USD for the invoice, city tax of $16.67 USD, and an invoice total of $1,184.34 USD.

B. state tax of $166.67 USD for the invoice, city tax of $91.11 USD, and an invoice total of $1,257.78 USD.

C. state tax of $166.67 USD for the invoice, city tax of $91.11 USD, and an invoice total of $1,000 USD.

D. state tax of $200 USD for the invoice, city tax of $10 USD, and an invoice total of $1,210 USD.

E. state tax of $200 USD for the invoice, city tax of $100 USD, and an invoice total of $1,300 USD.

Correct Answer: E

Question 12:

Which two are rules applicable to issue of refunds? (Choose two.)

A. You cannot refund more than either the original receipt amount or the remaining unapplied amount.

B. You can refund receipts that were either remitted or cleared.

C. You can issue a credit card refund to a customer who has made a cash payment.

D. You can refund receipts that are factored.

Correct Answer: AB

Question 13:

What is the impact on transactions of changing the billing cycle for a customer or group of customers?

A. The billing cycle does not have any impact on new transactions.

B. Existing transactions with no activity retain the old billing cycle.

C. Existing transactions with activity adapt the new billing cycle.

D. New transactions after this change inherit the new billing cycle.

Correct Answer: D

Question 14:

Which role provides access to Receivables ?Revenue Adjustments Real Time OTBI Subject area?

A. Revenue Manager

B. Accounts Receivable Manager

C. Accounts Receivable Specialist

D. Billing Specialist

Correct Answer: C

Question 15:

When reversing a receipt, if an adjustment or chargeback exists, how are the off-setting adjustments created?

A. manually, but without using the Adjustment Reversal and Chargeback Reversal activities

B. automatically, but without using the Adjustment Reversal and Chargeback Reversal activities

C. automatically by using the Adjustment Reversal and Chargeback Reversal activities

D. manually by using Chargeback Reversal activities

E. manually by using Adjustment Reversal activities

Correct Answer: C

When you reverse a receipt, if an adjustment or chargeback exists, Receivables automatically generates off-setting adjustments using the Adjustment Reversal and Chargeback Reversal activities.

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Question 1:

Which use case type is appropriate for VPN log sources? (Choose two.)

A. Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)

B. Insider Threat

C. Critical Data Protection

D. Securing the Cloud

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.ibm.com/docs/en/dsm?topic=management-threat-use-cases-by-log-source-type

Question 2:

What is displayed in the status bar of the Log Activity tab when streaming events?

A. Average number of results that are received per second.

B. Average number of results that are received per minute.

C. Accumulated number of results that are received per second.

D. Accumulated number of results that are received per minute.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Status bar

When streaming events, the status bar displays the average number of results that are received per

second.

Reference: https://www.ibm.com/docs/en/qradar-on-cloud?topic=investigation-log-activity-tab-overview

Question 3:

An analyst wants to analyze the long-term trending of data from a search. Which chart would be used to display this data on a dashboard?

A. Bar Graph

B. Time Series chart

C. Pie Chart

D. Scatter Chart

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

You could use a bar graph if you want to track change over time as long as the changes are significant.

Reference: https://www.statisticshowto.com/probability-and-statistics/descriptive-statistics/bar-chart-bargraph-examples/

Question 4:

When ordering these tests in an event rule, which of them is the best test to place at the top of the list for rule performance?

A. When the source is [local or remote]

B. When the destination is [local or remote]

C. When the event(s) were detected by one or more of [these log sources]

D. When an event matches all of the following [Rules or Building Blocks]

Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

Why would an analyst update host definition building blocks in QRadar?

A. To reduce false positives.

B. To narrow a search.

C. To stop receiving events from the host.

D. To close an Offense

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Building blocks to reduce the number of offenses that are generated by high volume traffic servers.

Reference: https://www.ibm.com/docs/en/qsip/7.4?topic=phase-qradar-building-blocks

Question 6:

After working with an Offense, an analyst set the Offense as hidden. What does the analyst need to do to view the Offense at a later time?

A. In the all Offenses view, at the top of the view, select “Show hidden” from the “Select an option” drop-down.

B. Search for all Offenses owned by the analyst.

C. Click Clear Filter next to the “Exclude Hidden Offenses”.

D. In the all Offenses view, select Actions, then select show hidden Offenses.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

To clear the filter on the offense list, click Clear Filter next to the Exclude Hidden Offenses search

parameter.

Reference: https://www.ibm.com/docs/fi/qradar-on-cloud?topic=actions-showing-hidden-offenses

Question 7:

What is the reason for this system notification?

A. Deny ntpdate communication on port 423.

B. Deny ntpdate communication on port 223.

C. Deny ntpdate communication on port 323.

D. Deny ntpdate communication on port 123.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

38750129 – Time synchronization to primary or Console has failed.

The managed host cannot synchronize with the console or the secondary HA appliance

cannotsynchronize with the primary appliance.

Administrators must allow ntpdatecommunication on port 123.

Reference: https://www.coursehero.com/file/p35nlom9/Process-exceeds-allowed-run-time-38750122Process-takes-too-long-to-execute-The/

Question 8:

When an analyst sees the system notification “The appliance exceeded the EPS or FPM allocation within the last hour”, how does the analyst resolve this issue? (Choose two.)

A. Delete the volume of events and flows received in the last hour.

B. Adjust the license pool allocations to increase the EPS and FPM capacity for the appliance.

C. Tune the system to reduce the volume of events and flows that enter the event pipeline.

D. Adjust the resource pool allocations to increase the EPS and FPM capacity for the appliance.

E. Tune the system to reduce the time window from 60 minutes to 30 minutes.

Correct Answer: BC

Explanation:

User response

Adjust the license pool allocations to increase the EPS and FPM capacity for the appliance.

Tune the system to reduce the volume of events and flows that enter the event pipeline.

Reference: https://www.ibm.com/docs/en/qsip/7.3.2?topic=appliances-maximum-events-flows-reached

Question 9:

An analyst is encountering a large number of false positive results. Legitimate internal network traffic contains valid flows and events which are making it difficult to identify true security incidents.

What can the analyst do to reduce these false positive indicators?

A. Create X-Force rules to detect false positive events.

B. Create an anomaly rule to detect false positives and suppress the event.

C. Filter the network traffic to receive only security related events.

D. Modify rules and/or Building Block to suppress false positive activity.

Correct Answer: C

Question 10:

What is the maximum time period for 3 subsequent events to be coalesced?

A. 10 minutes

B. 10 seconds

C. 5 minutes

D. 60 seconds

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Event coalescing starts after three events have been found with matching properties within a 10 second

window.

Reference: https://www.ibm.com/support/pages/qradar-how-does-coalescing-work-qradar

Question 11:

An analyst needs to create a new custom dashboard to view dashboard items that meet a particular requirement.

What are the main steps in the process?

A. Select New Dashboard and enter unique name, description, add items and save.

B. Select New Dashboard and copy name, add description, items and save.

C. Request the administrator to create the custom dashboard with required items.

D. Locate existing dashboard and modify to include indexed items required and save.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

To create or edit your dashboards, log in as an administrator, click the Dashboards tab, and then click the

gear icon. In edit mode, you can create new dashboards, add and remove widgets, edit display values in

existing widgets, and reorder tabs.

Reference: https://documentation.solarwinds.com/en/success_center/tm/content/threatmonitor/tmeditdashboards.htm

Question 12:

How can analyst verify if any host in the deployment is vulnerable to CVE ID: CVE-2010-000?

A. Use the asset search feature, select vulnerability external reference from the list of search parameters, select CVE and then type: 2010-000

B. Use the asset search feature, select vulnerability external reference from the list of search parameters, select CVE and then type: $CVE-2010000

C. Use the asset search feature, select vulnerability external reference from the list of search parameters, select CVE and then type: $2010-000

D. Use the asset search feature, select vulnerability external reference from the list of search parameters, select CVE and then type: CVE-2010000

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.ibm.com/docs/en/qradar-on-cloud?topic=ap-searching-asset-profiles-from-assetpage-assets-tab

Question 13:

An analyst investigates an Offense that will need more research to outline what has occurred. The analyst marks a ‘Follow up’ flag on the Offense.

What happens to the Offense after it is tagged with a ‘Follow up’ flag?

A. Only the analyst issuing the follow up flag can now close the Offense.

B. New events or flows will not be applied to the Offense.

C. A flag icon is displayed for the Offense in the Offense view.

D. Other analysts in QRadar get an email to look at the Offense.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The offense now displays the follow-up icon in the Flag column.

Reference: https://www.ibm.com/docs/en/qsip/7.4?topic=actions-marking-offense-follow-up

Question 14:

An analyst noticed that from a particular subnet (203.0.113.0/24), all IP addresses are simultaneously

trying to reach out to the company\’s publicly hosted FTP server.

The analyst also noticed that this activity has resulted in a Type B Superflow on the Network Activity tab.

Under which category, should the analyst report this issue to the security administrator?

A. Syn Flood

B. Port Scan

C. Network Scan

D. DDoS

Correct Answer: A

Question 15:

An analyst is investigating an Offense and has found that the issue is that a firewall appears to be misconfigured and has permitted traffic that should be prevented to pass.

As part of the firewall rule change process, the analyst needs to send the offense details to the firewall team to demonstrate that the firewall permitted traffic that should have been blocked.

How would the analyst send the Offense summary to an email mailbox?

A. Find the CRE Event in the Log Activity tab, open the event detail and select ‘Email linked Offense details’ from the ‘Action’ menu.

B. Search for the events linked to the Offense in the Log Activity tab; Select all events and copy them using CTRL-C then paste into an email client.

C. Open the Offense in the Offenses tab, select ‘Email’ from the ‘Action’ menu item and, optionally, add some extra information.

D. Identify the Offense in the Offense list, right click on the Offense and select ‘Custom Action Script’; ‘Offense Mailer’

Correct Answer: B

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Question 1:

What is the primary disadvantage of incremental backups?

A. time-consuming to restore

B. contain only the blocks that have changed since the previous backup

C. increased amount of data going across the network

D. can grow to contain a large amount of data

Correct Answer: A

Question 2:

What is true of hot-swappable hardware?

A. All components need to be rearranged after swap

B. Reboot is required after a change

C. All fans need to be running to ensure proper cooling

D. Replaceable with zero downtime

Correct Answer: D

Question 3:

Which Dell EMC Storage product family does SRDF support?

A. Unity

B. PowerMax

C. PowerScale

D. PowerStore

Correct Answer: B

Question 4:

Which type of virtual machine clone is created from a snapshot of a parent VM?

A. Mirrored Clone

B. Full Clone

C. Linked Clone

D. Snap Clone

Correct Answer: C

Question 5:

A backup of 20 GB of data is reduced by a deduplication algorithm to 4 GB of data. What is the deduplication ratio?

A. 1:20

B. 5:1

C. 20:1

D. 1:5

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

What assurance does the content authenticity feature of CAS provide?

A. Storing only one instance of content

B. Stored content is protected against erasure

C. Validity of stored content

D. There are always multiple copies

Correct Answer: C

Question 7:

Which key metric should be used when updating the corporate disaster recovery plan to minimize data loss?

A. MTTR

B. MTBF

C. RPO

D. RTO

Correct Answer: C

Question 8:

Which describes graceful degradation?

A. The application detects a fault in the system and properly shuts down all modules to keep all data consistent

B. Some modules are unavailable, but the entire application has not been brought down

C. All modules are still available, but response times are degraded

D. The application informs the end user their business is important and that the service will be back up as soon as possible

Correct Answer: B

Question 9:

An application developer is exploring the best technology to have the application easily transportable and have a small image footprint. Which technology satisfies the request?

A. Containers

B. Traditional application

C. Virtual machines

D. Monolithic application

Correct Answer: A

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

How is a hash created on file Apr.Txt in an object-level deduplication?

A. from content with variable-length

B. from the metadata of the file

C. from the content of the file

D. from content with fixed-length

Correct Answer: B

Question 11:

What does the Cloud Gateway Appliance provide?

A. translation layer between standard storage interfaces and cloud service provider

B. backup access to the cloud service provider

C. translation layer between standard network interfaces and cloud service provider

D. VPN access to the cloud service provider

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

When is the target available for use in pointer-based replication?

A. once the fracture log has been created

B. after the mirror has been fractured

C. immediately after session activation

D. after synchronization has completed

Correct Answer: C

Question 13:

A computer has an MTBF of 7000 hours and an MTTR of 18 hours? What is the availability of the data?

A. 90.7%

B. 99.1%

C. 99.7%

D. 99.8%

Correct Answer: A

Question 14:

Which characteristic of big data refers to data generated by numerous sources?

A. veracity

B. variety

C. volume

D. velocity

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

Which recovery mode involves rolling back a system to a previous recovery point instead of finding the cause of a fault?

A. Forward recovery

B. Complete functional recovery

C. Backward recovery

D. Degraded functional recovery

Correct Answer: B

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