Month: July 2022

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Question 1:

Which use case type is appropriate for VPN log sources? (Choose two.)

A. Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)

B. Insider Threat

C. Critical Data Protection

D. Securing the Cloud

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.ibm.com/docs/en/dsm?topic=management-threat-use-cases-by-log-source-type


Question 2:

What is displayed in the status bar of the Log Activity tab when streaming events?

A. Average number of results that are received per second.

B. Average number of results that are received per minute.

C. Accumulated number of results that are received per second.

D. Accumulated number of results that are received per minute.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Status bar

When streaming events, the status bar displays the average number of results that are received per

second.

Reference: https://www.ibm.com/docs/en/qradar-on-cloud?topic=investigation-log-activity-tab-overview


Question 3:

An analyst wants to analyze the long-term trending of data from a search. Which chart would be used to display this data on a dashboard?

A. Bar Graph

B. Time Series chart

C. Pie Chart

D. Scatter Chart

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

You could use a bar graph if you want to track change over time as long as the changes are significant.

Reference: https://www.statisticshowto.com/probability-and-statistics/descriptive-statistics/bar-chart-bargraph-examples/


Question 4:

When ordering these tests in an event rule, which of them is the best test to place at the top of the list for rule performance?

A. When the source is [local or remote]

B. When the destination is [local or remote]

C. When the event(s) were detected by one or more of [these log sources]

D. When an event matches all of the following [Rules or Building Blocks]

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Why would an analyst update host definition building blocks in QRadar?

A. To reduce false positives.

B. To narrow a search.

C. To stop receiving events from the host.

D. To close an Offense

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Building blocks to reduce the number of offenses that are generated by high volume traffic servers.

Reference: https://www.ibm.com/docs/en/qsip/7.4?topic=phase-qradar-building-blocks


Question 6:

After working with an Offense, an analyst set the Offense as hidden. What does the analyst need to do to view the Offense at a later time?

A. In the all Offenses view, at the top of the view, select “Show hidden” from the “Select an option” drop-down.

B. Search for all Offenses owned by the analyst.

C. Click Clear Filter next to the “Exclude Hidden Offenses”.

D. In the all Offenses view, select Actions, then select show hidden Offenses.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

To clear the filter on the offense list, click Clear Filter next to the Exclude Hidden Offenses search

parameter.

Reference: https://www.ibm.com/docs/fi/qradar-on-cloud?topic=actions-showing-hidden-offenses


Question 7:

What is the reason for this system notification?

A. Deny ntpdate communication on port 423.

B. Deny ntpdate communication on port 223.

C. Deny ntpdate communication on port 323.

D. Deny ntpdate communication on port 123.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

38750129 – Time synchronization to primary or Console has failed.

The managed host cannot synchronize with the console or the secondary HA appliance

cannotsynchronize with the primary appliance.

Administrators must allow ntpdatecommunication on port 123.

Reference: https://www.coursehero.com/file/p35nlom9/Process-exceeds-allowed-run-time-38750122Process-takes-too-long-to-execute-The/


Question 8:

When an analyst sees the system notification “The appliance exceeded the EPS or FPM allocation within the last hour”, how does the analyst resolve this issue? (Choose two.)

A. Delete the volume of events and flows received in the last hour.

B. Adjust the license pool allocations to increase the EPS and FPM capacity for the appliance.

C. Tune the system to reduce the volume of events and flows that enter the event pipeline.

D. Adjust the resource pool allocations to increase the EPS and FPM capacity for the appliance.

E. Tune the system to reduce the time window from 60 minutes to 30 minutes.

Correct Answer: BC

Explanation:

User response

Adjust the license pool allocations to increase the EPS and FPM capacity for the appliance.

Tune the system to reduce the volume of events and flows that enter the event pipeline.

Reference: https://www.ibm.com/docs/en/qsip/7.3.2?topic=appliances-maximum-events-flows-reached


Question 9:

An analyst is encountering a large number of false positive results. Legitimate internal network traffic contains valid flows and events which are making it difficult to identify true security incidents.

What can the analyst do to reduce these false positive indicators?

A. Create X-Force rules to detect false positive events.

B. Create an anomaly rule to detect false positives and suppress the event.

C. Filter the network traffic to receive only security related events.

D. Modify rules and/or Building Block to suppress false positive activity.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

What is the maximum time period for 3 subsequent events to be coalesced?

A. 10 minutes

B. 10 seconds

C. 5 minutes

D. 60 seconds

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Event coalescing starts after three events have been found with matching properties within a 10 second

window.

Reference: https://www.ibm.com/support/pages/qradar-how-does-coalescing-work-qradar


Question 11:

An analyst needs to create a new custom dashboard to view dashboard items that meet a particular requirement.

What are the main steps in the process?

A. Select New Dashboard and enter unique name, description, add items and save.

B. Select New Dashboard and copy name, add description, items and save.

C. Request the administrator to create the custom dashboard with required items.

D. Locate existing dashboard and modify to include indexed items required and save.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

To create or edit your dashboards, log in as an administrator, click the Dashboards tab, and then click the

gear icon. In edit mode, you can create new dashboards, add and remove widgets, edit display values in

existing widgets, and reorder tabs.

Reference: https://documentation.solarwinds.com/en/success_center/tm/content/threatmonitor/tmeditdashboards.htm


Question 12:

How can analyst verify if any host in the deployment is vulnerable to CVE ID: CVE-2010-000?

A. Use the asset search feature, select vulnerability external reference from the list of search parameters, select CVE and then type: 2010-000

B. Use the asset search feature, select vulnerability external reference from the list of search parameters, select CVE and then type: $CVE-2010000

C. Use the asset search feature, select vulnerability external reference from the list of search parameters, select CVE and then type: $2010-000

D. Use the asset search feature, select vulnerability external reference from the list of search parameters, select CVE and then type: CVE-2010000

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.ibm.com/docs/en/qradar-on-cloud?topic=ap-searching-asset-profiles-from-assetpage-assets-tab


Question 13:

An analyst investigates an Offense that will need more research to outline what has occurred. The analyst marks a ‘Follow up’ flag on the Offense.

What happens to the Offense after it is tagged with a ‘Follow up’ flag?

A. Only the analyst issuing the follow up flag can now close the Offense.

B. New events or flows will not be applied to the Offense.

C. A flag icon is displayed for the Offense in the Offense view.

D. Other analysts in QRadar get an email to look at the Offense.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The offense now displays the follow-up icon in the Flag column.

Reference: https://www.ibm.com/docs/en/qsip/7.4?topic=actions-marking-offense-follow-up


Question 14:

An analyst noticed that from a particular subnet (203.0.113.0/24), all IP addresses are simultaneously

trying to reach out to the company\’s publicly hosted FTP server.

The analyst also noticed that this activity has resulted in a Type B Superflow on the Network Activity tab.

Under which category, should the analyst report this issue to the security administrator?

A. Syn Flood

B. Port Scan

C. Network Scan

D. DDoS

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

An analyst is investigating an Offense and has found that the issue is that a firewall appears to be misconfigured and has permitted traffic that should be prevented to pass.

As part of the firewall rule change process, the analyst needs to send the offense details to the firewall team to demonstrate that the firewall permitted traffic that should have been blocked.

How would the analyst send the Offense summary to an email mailbox?

A. Find the CRE Event in the Log Activity tab, open the event detail and select ‘Email linked Offense details’ from the ‘Action’ menu.

B. Search for the events linked to the Offense in the Log Activity tab; Select all events and copy them using CTRL-C then paste into an email client.

C. Open the Offense in the Offenses tab, select ‘Email’ from the ‘Action’ menu item and, optionally, add some extra information.

D. Identify the Offense in the Offense list, right click on the Offense and select ‘Custom Action Script’; ‘Offense Mailer’

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

What is the primary disadvantage of incremental backups?

A. time-consuming to restore

B. contain only the blocks that have changed since the previous backup

C. increased amount of data going across the network

D. can grow to contain a large amount of data

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

What is true of hot-swappable hardware?

A. All components need to be rearranged after swap

B. Reboot is required after a change

C. All fans need to be running to ensure proper cooling

D. Replaceable with zero downtime

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Which Dell EMC Storage product family does SRDF support?

A. Unity

B. PowerMax

C. PowerScale

D. PowerStore

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Which type of virtual machine clone is created from a snapshot of a parent VM?

A. Mirrored Clone

B. Full Clone

C. Linked Clone

D. Snap Clone

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

A backup of 20 GB of data is reduced by a deduplication algorithm to 4 GB of data. What is the deduplication ratio?

A. 1:20

B. 5:1

C. 20:1

D. 1:5

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

What assurance does the content authenticity feature of CAS provide?

A. Storing only one instance of content

B. Stored content is protected against erasure

C. Validity of stored content

D. There are always multiple copies

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Which key metric should be used when updating the corporate disaster recovery plan to minimize data loss?

A. MTTR

B. MTBF

C. RPO

D. RTO

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Which describes graceful degradation?

A. The application detects a fault in the system and properly shuts down all modules to keep all data consistent

B. Some modules are unavailable, but the entire application has not been brought down

C. All modules are still available, but response times are degraded

D. The application informs the end user their business is important and that the service will be back up as soon as possible

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

An application developer is exploring the best technology to have the application easily transportable and have a small image footprint. Which technology satisfies the request?

A. Containers

B. Traditional application

C. Virtual machines

D. Monolithic application

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

How is a hash created on file Apr.Txt in an object-level deduplication?

A. from content with variable-length

B. from the metadata of the file

C. from the content of the file

D. from content with fixed-length

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

What does the Cloud Gateway Appliance provide?

A. translation layer between standard storage interfaces and cloud service provider

B. backup access to the cloud service provider

C. translation layer between standard network interfaces and cloud service provider

D. VPN access to the cloud service provider

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

When is the target available for use in pointer-based replication?

A. once the fracture log has been created

B. after the mirror has been fractured

C. immediately after session activation

D. after synchronization has completed

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

A computer has an MTBF of 7000 hours and an MTTR of 18 hours? What is the availability of the data?

A. 90.7%

B. 99.1%

C. 99.7%

D. 99.8%

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which characteristic of big data refers to data generated by numerous sources?

A. veracity

B. variety

C. volume

D. velocity

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which recovery mode involves rolling back a system to a previous recovery point instead of finding the cause of a fault?

A. Forward recovery

B. Complete functional recovery

C. Backward recovery

D. Degraded functional recovery

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

The cross-channel aggregates the data flow and the stacked device chains to implement the transmitter replacement, but because of the limited cable bandwidth between the stacked devices, Which of the following ways to improve efficiency over forwarding?

A. Pass stack card Connect stack connected device

B. Enable stacking multi-master function Check

C. Configure stacking system MAC address switching

D. Enable traffic local first priority

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Now there is a phone running RSTP. If the network topology changes, then the second table that is learned by the carrier will have what to change Turn?

A. All tables are deleted

B. Only the table related to the port that received the message will be deleted.

C. Except for the table related to the port, the edge item is deleted, and other tables are deleted.

D. If the aging time is set to 15 seconds, then the super aging entries will be deleted.

E. Except for the table related to the port and the table related to the port that receives the edge item TC message, the other items are deleted.

Correct Answer: E


Question 3:

The following is about the correct change of the MUX VLAN in Huawei.

A. Under the same one, you can mix and use VLAN MUX VLAN Super VLAN

B. MUX VLAN Principal VLAN Subor is divided into and divided into dinate VLANs, Subordinate VLAN S is separate VLAN and Isolate VLAN

C. Each can be bound to multiple Separate VLAN Principal VLANs

D. Principal Port MUX VLAN can communicate with all interfaces inside

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

When a deployed LAN line goes wrong with a Huawei device, there are a large number of unknown sources in your LAN that discover the broadcast frame of the MAC address. a lot of unknown The source address broadcast will pay MAC single frame. What is the biggest harm to the change?

A. Consume available bandwidth

B. Increase the power consumption of the source

C. Occupied memory slow frame

D. The available MAC address entries in the consumption system

E. Occupation table TCAM item

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

The following description of the process of receiving data in the Access mode for the exchange interface is correct?

A. Access mode directly discards the data frame with the tag

B. Only receive data in Access mode with label frame

C. Data The destination modification frame MAC address in the opportunistic data when the input interface frame is changed.

D. In the Access VLAN mode, the send frame will be stripped of the data.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

In which port can provide a copy of the path to the generated root point RSTP sufficient tree section?

What is the port?

A. Alternate Learning port and status

B. Alternate Forwarding Port and Status

C. Root port and shape Listening state

D. Designate Listening port and status

E. Alternate Discarding port and status

Correct Answer: E


Question 7:

The following about the attribute BGP RD ( ) filter, is the description correct? Multiple selection

A. If configured, but the route does not match any of the specified RD-filter RD RD Permit rules, the default match is then recognized.

B. The use of the RD-filter ” configuration is the relationship between rules or

C. If there is no configuration, but reference RD-filter RD-filter deny, this is the filter line, the match is the result

D. Multiple, according to the configuration, the line matching rules

Correct Answer: BD


Question 8:

ISIS DIS DIS ?( ) will access the election in the broadcast multiplex network. The following is correct.

A. ISIS DIS MAC is better than the first-ranked election. If it is consistent, it is better than the priority.

B. DIS CSNP is sent periodically to send messages to keep the data synchronization certificate

C. Accessing the network in a broadcast multiplex network, sending DIS Hello PDUs at a rate of three times

D. DIS DIS LSP support occupies the function, the new one occupies the success, does not need to flood any text

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 9:

OSPFv3 OSPFv2 OSPFv3 protocol Single-issue protocol is a separate one. It differs from the other in

terms of road-based rather than network segment chain.

The next thing is to say the mistake ?

A. Two routers connected to the link, even if their IPv6 addresses are differently suffixed, they can still establish a neighbor relationship.

B. Pairing the two routers connected to the road, even if you do not configure the broadcast IPv6 address, you can establish a neighbor.

C. The OSPFv3 Link-local router obtains the next hop of the neighboring address from the neighboring routing information.

D. In addition to the virtual connection, all interfaces use the address of the address composition OSPFv3 Link-local

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

About the sliding window TCP ( ) action, which of the following description is the error? Multiple selection

A. When the repeater is over-timed, the sender does not receive the confirmation, and the data will be unrecognized.

B. Sending the transmission end does not require a full window size

C. TCP Sliding window allows multiple packets to be sent before receiving the acknowledgment

D. Sliding window size can only increase or remain unchanged

E. The sender announces the initial window size

Correct Answer: DE


Question 11:

If shown, a part of a router is as shown in the first line of the LSDB LSP LSP. First received a new one, as shown in the second jump below. The column method is wrong

A. The router will put the newly received LSP LSDB.

B. This router will ignore neighboring LSPs received from the home.

C. If it is a point-to-point network, this router will send PSNP

D. If it is a broadcast network, it will be DIS CSNP LSP in the next text, containing the summary information of this

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Regarding the OSPF Stub NSSA protocol area and area, the following method is incorrect.

A. Stub Type 5 LSA, NSSA Type 5 LSA area is not allowed to be injected, and the area is allowed to be injected.

B. Stub NSSA Type 3 LSA areas and areas are allowed to be injected.

C. Stub NSSA Type 4 LSA areas and areas are not allowed to be injected.

D. Stub Type7 LSA, NSSA Type7 LSA area is not allowed to be injected and the area is allowed to be injected.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

IPv6 ISIS ring protocol deployment, the following method is correct

A. In the broadcast network, the first can be divided into IPv4 IPv6 DIS priority settings.

B. By default, the priority of the broadcast network interface is Level-1 Level-2 DIS 1 and

C. In the same broadcast network, if each router is supported, IPv4 IPv6 IPv4 IPv6 DIS and , and must be the same device

D. ISIS ISIS silent ISIS ISIS interface configuration, then this interface will not send packets, but will receive packets

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

BGP BGP introduces other post-routing protocols. The next hop in the routing table is consistent with the next hop of the redistributed route.

A. Correct

B. Error

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

There is an AS-path-filter ip as-path-filt , er 1 permit ^100(_100)*(_400)*, As- which path-filter AS- PATH cannot match which genus Sex

A. 100 400

B. 100 400 400 400

C. 100 200 900

D. 100

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

Which BGP message type contains NLRI information?

A. notification

B. keepalive

C. update

D. open

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Click the Exhibit button.

Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are true regarding Q-in-Q tunneling? (Choose two.)

A. The C-VLAN traffic will be encapsulated with an outer VLAN tag of 150.

B. The C-VLANs 100-200 will be sent as the inner VLAN tag.

C. The C-VLAN 150 will be sent as the inner VLAN tag.

D. The C-VLAN traffic will be encapsulated with an outer VLAN tag of 10.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 3:

What is the correct authentication processing order on EX Series switches when multiple Layer 2 authentication methods are enabled?

A. MAC RADIUS –andgt; 802.1X –andgt; captive portal

B. 802.1X –andgt; MAC RADIUS –andgt; captive portal

C. 802.1X –andgt; captive portal –andgt; MAC RADIUS

D. captive portal –andgt; MAC RADIUS –andgt; 802.1X

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

You are implementing a single spanning tree instance in your network and want to use the protocol that will give you the best convergence time in the event of a physical network failure of the root bridge.

Which spanning tree protocol will satisfy this requirement?

A. RSTP

B. STP

C. MSTP

D. VSTP

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

What are three well-known mandatory BGP attributes? (Choose three.)

A. MED

B. AS-path

C. origin

D. next-hop

E. community

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 6:

You have PIM SM multicast configured and running in a network environment comprised of EX4300 devices. Your customers report increased delay when switching channels using IPTV. To help decrease the delay, you implement PIM join load balancing. You add the set protocols pim join-loadbalance command to the configuration. After committing, you notice that the flows are still using only one path.

In this scenario, which statement is correct?

A. The clear pim join-distributioncommand must be issued.

B. The interfaces must be specified to use for load balancing.

C. IGMP snooping must also be configured.

D. PIM join load-balancing only works for PIM-DM.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

You have configured CoS on a Junos device. A packet is classified as best effort by a behavior aggregate (BA) classifier, and as expedited forwarding by a multifield (MF) classifier.

Which statement is true in this scenario?

A. The packet will be placed in a queue associated with the BA classifier.

B. The packet will be placed into the queue which is least congested.

C. The packet will be placed into the queue that has the most bandwidth assigned to it.

D. The packet will be placed in a queue associated with the MF classifier.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

You must ensure that all management traffic sourced from your Junos devices is set with a specific DSCP code-point value.

Which action will accomplish this task?

A. Apply the DSCP code-point to the [edit class-of-service host-outbound-traffic]hierarchy.

B. Apply the DSCP code-point to the [edit class-of-service interface lo0.0]hierarchy

C. Apply the DSCP code-point in an egress policer.

D. Apply the DSCP code-point to a rewrite rule.

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Click the Exhibit button.

A router is attempting to form an OSPF neighborship with another router. However, the OSPF neighborship fails to establish completely.

Referring to the exhibit, what is the problem?

A. There is an interface type mismatch.

B. There is an interface subnet mask mismatch.

C. There is an OSPF area mismatch.

D. There is an interface MTU mismatch.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

You are currently using VLAN IDs 2 through 300 within your Layer 2 domain and you need to configure VSTP to prevent loops. You must ensure that all VLANs are loop free.

In this scenario, which statement is correct?

A. You must ensure that the VLANs are balanced between two different root bridges.

B. You must enable RSTP to account for all VLANs.

C. You must ensure that the bridge priority is set to the lowest value on all switches in the Layer 2 domain.

D. You must enable all VLANs, 2 through 300, under the VSTP configuration.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Which two statements are correct about a functional ESI LAG interface? (Choose two.)

A. The LACP system ID must be the same.

B. The ESI values must be the same.

C. The LACP system ID must be different.

D. The ESI values must be different.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 12:

You notice a mass withdrawal of routes for some of the network hosts. You determine that the link on the ESI interface is down.

Which route type is used in this scenario?

A. Type 2

B. Type 3

C. Type 1

D. Type 5

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

When configuring class of service, what would you use to allocate bandwidth to a forwarding class?

A. buffer depth

B. transmit rate

C. bandwidth

D. speed

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

You are using 802.1X in your access network consisting of EX Series switches. You recently had a failure with your RADIUS server which resulted in authenticating client devices being denied access to the network. You want to change this behavior so that authenticating clients are directed to a remediation VLAN.

Which RADIUS server failback setting satisfies this requirement?

A. permit

B. move

C. sustain

D. deny

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

You have configured class mode power management on an EX4300 to provide PoE power to telephone and security camera equipment. You want to ensure that security camera power takes priority over telephone power.

Which two actions would solve this problem? (Choose two.)

A. Connect the security cameras to the lowest port numbers on the switch.

B. Set the power priority to high on ports connected to security cameras.

C. Set the maximum power settings on ports connected to security cameras.

D. Set the power priority to low on ports connected to security cameras.

Correct Answer: AB


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Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit.

An Aruba solution uses AirMatch with the default AirMatch profile settings. A network administrator sees that a scheduled optimization was completed, but a plan was not deployed. Based on the exhibit, why did this occur?

A. The cost of the new plan exceeds the amount allowed by the feature license

B. The new plan did not offer significantly improved quality

C. The solution uses master-local mode

D. ARM is disabled in the radio profile, so AP radios are considered frozen

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

Network administrators need to set up a WLAN that uses WPA2 encryption and authenticates users with a preshared key (PSK) that is the same for all users. Administrators do not see where they should specify the option for the preshared

key.

What should the administrators do?

A. Click Personal in the slide bar.

B. Click the icon in the Authentication server section

C. Return to the first page in the wizard and select the guest option

D. Configure an L3 authentication profile after the WLAN wizard is complete

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

What is a reason for a company to choose to deploy an Aruba 7024 Mobility Controller (MC) rather than an Aruba 7010 MC?

A. to support 802.11ac Aps rather than only 802.11n APs

B. to support more wireless users

C. to support more POE devices directly connected to the MC

D. to support a faster firewall throughput rate

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

A company wants to provide wireless access for guests with their Aruba solution. Which configuration feature requires the customer to purchase PEFNG licenses?

A. redirection of guests to an external captive portal

B. provision of DHCP services to unauthenticated guests

C. addition of custom rules to control access for authenticated guests

D. customization of the internal captive portal login page

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit shows output from a Mobility Master (MM) dashboard. What is a valid reason for the administrator to click the akamai square under applications?

A. to create filter rules in order to control wireless user access to this application

B. to download a report about the usage of this application over time

C. to see more details about this application, such as a list of aggregated sessions

D. to see the break down for only roles, destinations, WLANs and devices that use this application

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

What is a requirement for the Dashboard > Traffic Analysis window on the Aruba Mobility Master (MM) to show data?

A. Airmatch and ClientMatch must be enabled.

B. The solution must have active PEFNG licenses.

C. Firewall policies must include application filtering rules.

D. WLANs must use the decrypt-tunnel forwarding option.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

How can network administrators upgrade AirMatch on an Aruba Mobility Master (MM)?

A. Upgrade Client Match as part of a global software upgrade, and upgrade AirMatch separately as a loadable service module (LSM).

B. Upgrade Client Match and AirMatch separately as loadable service modules (LSMs).

C. Upgrade AirMatch and Client Match through a global software upgrade.

D. Upgrade AirMatch as part of a global software upgrade, and upgrade Client Match separately as a loadable service module (LSM).

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

An AP operates on channel 6. Which device causes the most significant and consistent interference with the signal?

A. cellular phone

B. weather radar

C. wireless security camera operating on channel 8

D. AP operating on channel 11

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

A network administrator needs to create an Aruba firewall rule that permits wireless users to receive DHCP settings when they first connect to the Aruba solution. What are the correct source and destination aliases for the rule?

A. source = any and destination = user

B. source = any and destination = any

C. source = user and destination = user

D. source = user and destination = any

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

How can network administrator provide high availability for APs deployed in an Aruba Mobility Master (MM)-based architecture?

A. Establish clusters of Mobility Controllers (MCs).

B. Configure MM to provide backup AP tunnel termination in case of controller failure.

C. Deploy all licenses locally yo APs, so that they can continue to function if they lose contact with their controller.

D. Configure APs to convert to controller-less Instant AP mode during controller failure.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

A WLAN in an Aruba Mobility Master (MM)-based solution enforces Enterprise-WPA2 security and uses the tunnel forwarding mode. The company has an external RADIUS server. Which device exchanges RADIUS packets with the RADIUS server?

A. Mobility Controller (MC)

B. wireless client

C. access point (AP)

D. Mobility Master (MM)

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

A network administrator adds several new APs to an Aruba solution that uses AirMatch. The administrator does not want to change the channel for the existing APs, but wants the new APs to receive a provisional plan for their channels and

power.

What should the administrator do to meet this goal?

A. Run an on-demand quick AirMatch optimization.

B. Run an on-demand incremental AirMatch optimization.

C. Temporarily enable ARM on the existing and new APs, while AirMatch scheduling remains enabled.

D. Temporarily disable AirMatch scheduling, and then enable ARM on the existing and new APs.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

What is the minimum space between channels in the 2.4GHz range to prevent overlap?

A. 1 channel

B. 3 channels

C. 5 channels

D. 7 channels

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which task can an Aruba Air Monitor (AM) perform?

A. Analyze wireless traffic patterns at the application level.

B. Optimize RF through the AP channel and transmit power plans.

C. Analyze RF signals to determine the cause of non-802.11 interference.

D. Help to detect rogue APs in the environment.

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Which type of authentication server should administrators select to authenticate users to a ClearPass server?

A. Windows

B. RADIUS

C. TACACS

D. LDAP

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

A company has a new requirement stating that all resources In AWS must be tagged according to a set policy.

Which AWS service should be used to enforce and continually Identify all resources that are not in compliance with the policy?

A. AWS CloudTrail

B. Amazon Inspector

C. AWS Config

D. AWS Systems Manager

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

A company using AWS Organizations requires that no Amazon S3 buckets in its production accounts should ever be deleted.

What is the SIMPLEST approach the SysOps administrator can take to ensure S3 buckets in those accounts can never be deleted?

A. Set up MFA Delete on all the S3 buckets to prevent the buckets from being deleted.

B. Use service control policies to deny the s3:DeleteBucket action on all buckets in production accounts.

C. Create an IAM group that has an IAM policy to deny the s3:DeleteBucket action on all buckets in production accounts.

D. Use AWS Shield to deny the s3:DeleteBucket action on the AWS account instead of all S3 buckets.

Correct Answer: B

If you\’re using AWS Organizations, check the service control policies for any statements that explicitly deny Amazon S3 access. In particular, check the service control policies for statements denying the s3:PutBucketPolicy action.

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/organizations/latest/userguide/orgs_manage_policies_scps.html https://aws.amazon.com/tw/premiumsupport/knowledge-center/s3-access-denied-bucket-policy/


Question 3:

A company is running a website on Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). The company configured an Amazon CloudFront distribution and set the ALB as the origin. The company created an Amazon Route 53 CNAME record to send all traffic through the CloudFront distribution. As an unintended side effect, mobile users are now being served the desktop version of the website.

Which action should a SysOps administrator take to resolve this issue?

A. Configure the CloudFront distribution behavior to forward the User-Agent header.

B. Configure the CloudFront distribution origin settings. Add a User-Agent header to the list of origin custom headers.

C. Enable IPv6 on the ALB. Update the CloudFront distribution origin settings to use the dualstack endpoint.

D. Enable IPv6 on the CloudFront distribution. Update the Route 53 record to use the dualstack endpoint.

Correct Answer: A

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonCloudFront/latest/DeveloperGuide/header-caching.html#headercaching-web-device


Question 4:

A company is managing multiple AWS accounts in AWS Organizations. The company is reviewing internal security of its AWS environment. The company\’s security administrator has their own AWS account and wants to review the VPC configuration of developer AWS accounts.

Which solution will meet these requirements in the MOST secure manner?

A. Create an IAM policy in each developer account that has read-only access related to VPC resources Assign the policy to an IAM user. Share the user credentials with the security administrator.

B. Create an IAM policy in each developer account that has administrator access to all Amazon EC2 actions, including VPC actions. Assign the policy to an IAM user. Share the user credentials with the security administrator.

C. Create an IAM policy in each developer account that has administrator access related to VPC resources. Assign the policy to a cross-account IAM role. Ask the security administrator to assume the role from their account.

D. Create an IAM policy in each developer account that has read-only access related to VPC resources Assign the policy to a cross-account IAM role Ask the security administrator to assume the role from their account.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

A company hosts an online shopping portal in the AWS Cloud. The portal provides HTTPS security by using a TLS certificate on an Elastic Load Balancer (ELB). Recently, the portal suffered an outage because the TLS certificate expired. A SysOps administrator must create a solution to automatically renew certificates to avoid this issue in the future.

What is the MOST operationally efficient solution that meets these requirements?

A. Request a public certificate by using AWS Certificate Manager (ACM). Associate the certificate from ACM with the ELB. Write a scheduled AWS Lambda function to renew the certificate every 18 months.

B. Request a public certificate by using AWS Certificate Manager (ACM). Associate the certificate from ACM with the ELB. ACM will automatically manage the renewal of the certificate.

C. Register a certificate with a third-party certificate authority (CA). Import this certificate into AWS Certificate Manager (ACM). Associate the certificate from ACM with the ELB. ACM will automatically manage the renewal of the certificate.

D. Register a certificate with a third-party certificate authority (CA). Configure the ELB to import the certificate directly from the CA. Set the certificate refresh cycle on the ELB to refresh when the certificate is within 3 months of the expiration date.

Correct Answer: B

“A certificate is eligible for automatic renewal subject to the following considerations: ELIGIBLE if associated with another AWS service, such as Elastic Load Balancing or CloudFront. ELIGIBLE if exported since being issued or last renewed. ELIGIBLE if it is a private certificate issued by calling the ACM RequestCertificate API and then exported or associated with another AWS service. ELIGIBLE if it is a private certificate issued through the management console and then exported or associated with another AWS service.”

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/acm/latest/userguide/managed-renewal.html


Question 6:

A company runs a stateless application that is hosted on an Amazon EC2 instance. Users are reporting performance issues. A SysOps administrator reviews the Amazon CloudWatch metrics for the application and notices that the instance\’s CPU utilization frequently reaches 90% during business hours.

What is the MOST operationally efficient solution that will improve the application\’s responsiveness?

A. Configure CloudWatch logging on the EC2 instance. Configure a CloudWatch alarm for CPU utilization to alert the SysOps administrator when CPU utilization goes above 90%.

B. Configure an AWS Client VPN connection to allow the application users to connect directly to the EC2 instance private IP address to reduce latency.

C. Create an Auto Scaling group, and assign it to an Application Load Balancer. Configure a target tracking scaling policy that is based on the average CPU utilization of the Auto Scaling group.

D. Create a CloudWatch alarm that activates when the EC2 instance\’s CPU utilization goes above 80% .Configure the alarm to invoke an AWS Lambda function that vertically scales the instance.

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

A company is running a serverless application on AWS Lambda The application stores data in an Amazon RDS for MySQL DB instance Usage has steadily increased and recently there have been numerous “too many connections” errors when the Lambda function attempts to connect to the database The company already has configured the database to use the maximum max_connections value that is possible

What should a SysOps administrator do to resolve these errors\’?

A. Create a read replica of the database Use Amazon Route 53 to create a weighted DNS record that contains both databases

B. Use Amazon RDS Proxy to create a proxy Update the connection string in the Lambda function

C. Increase the value in the max_connect_errors parameter in the parameter group that the database uses

D. Update the Lambda function\’s reserved concurrency to a higher value

Correct Answer: B

RDS Proxy acts as an intermediary between your application and an RDS database. RDS Proxy establishes and manages the necessary connection pools to your database so that your application creates fewer database connections. Your Lambda functions interact with RDS Proxy instead of your database instance. It handles the connection pooling necessary for scaling many simultaneous connections created by concurrent Lambda functions. This allows your Lambda applications to reuse existing connections, rather than creating new connections for every function invocation.

Check “Database proxy for Amazon RDS” section in the link to see how RDS proxy help Lambda handle huge connections to RDS MySQL https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/compute/using-amazon-rds-proxy-withaws-lambda/


Question 8:

An AWS Lambda function is intermittently failing several times a day A SysOps administrator must find out how often this error has occurred in the last 7 days

Which action will meet this requirement in the MOST operationally efficient manner?

A. Use Amazon Athena to query the Amazon CloudWatch logs that are associated with the Lambda function

B. Use Amazon Athena to query the AWS CloudTrail logs that are associated with the Lambda function

C. Use Amazon CloudWatch Logs Insights to query the associated Lambda function logs

D. Use Amazon Elasticsearch Service (Amazon ES) to stream the Amazon CloudWatch logs for the Lambda function

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

An errant process is known to use an entire processor and run at 100%. A SysOps administrator wants to automate restarting the instance once the problem occurs for more than 2 minutes.

How can this be accomplished?

A. Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm for the Amazon EC2 instance with basic monitoring. Enable an action to restart the instance.

B. Create a CloudWatch alarm for the EC2 instance with detailed monitoring. Enable an action to restart the instance.

C. Create an AWS Lambda function to restart the EC2 instance, triggered on a scheduled basis every 2 minutes.

D. Create a Lambda function to restart the EC2 instance, triggered by EC2 health checks.

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

An existing, deployed solution uses Amazon EC2 instances with Amazon EBS General Purpose SSD volumes, an Amazon RDS PostgreSQL database, an Amazon EFS file system, and static objects stored in an Amazon S3 bucket. The Security team now mandates that at-rest encryption be turned on immediately for all aspects of the application, without creating new resources and without any downtime.

To satisfy the requirements, which one of these services can the SysOps administrator enable at-rest encryption on?

A. EBS General Purpose SSD volumes

B. RDS PostgreSQL database

C. Amazon EFS file systems

D. S3 objects within a bucket

Correct Answer: D

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonS3/latest/userguide/UsingEncryption.html


Question 11:

A company has a stateless application that is hosted on a fleet of 10 Amazon EC2 On-Demand Instances in an Auto Scaling group. A minimum of 6 instances are needed to meet service requirements.

Which action will maintain uptime for the application MOST cost-effectively?

A. Use a Spot Fleet with an On-Demand capacity of 6 instances.

B. Update the Auto Scaling group with a minimum of 6 On-Demand Instances and a maximum of 10 On-Demand Instances.

C. Update the Auto Scaling group with a minimum of 1 On-Demand Instance and a maximum of 6 On-Demand Instances.

D. Use a Spot Fleet with a target capacity of 6 instances.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

A company is running a flash sale on its website. The website is hosted on burstable performance Amazon EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group. The Auto Scaling group is configured to launch instances when the CPU utilization is above 70%.

A couple of hours into the sale, users report slow load times and error messages for refused connections. A SysOps administrator reviews Amazon CloudWatch metrics and notices that the CPU utilization is at 20% across the entire fleet of instances.

The SysOps administrator must restore the website\’s functionality without making changes to the network infrastructure.

Which solution will meet these requirements?

A. Activate unlimited mode for the instances in the Auto Scaling group.

B. Implement an Amazon CloudFront distribution to offload the traffic from the Auto Scaling group.

C. Move the website to a different AWS Region that is closer to the users.

D. Reduce the desired size of the Auto Scaling group to artificially increase CPU average utilization.

Correct Answer: B

Implement an Amazon CloudFront distribution to offload the traffic from the Auto Scaling group does not breach the requirement of no changes in the network infrastructure. Reason is that cloudfront is a distribution that allows you to distribute content using a worldwide network of edge locations that provide low latency and high data transfer speeds. It plug in to existing setup, not changes to it.


Question 13:

A SysOps administrator is evaluating Amazon Route 53 DNS options to address concerns about high availability for an on-premises website. The website consists of two servers: a primary active server and a secondary passive server. Route 53 should route traffic to the primary server if the associated health check returns 2xx or 3xx HTTP codes. All other traffic should be directed to the secondary passive server. The failover record type, set ID. and routing policy have been set appropriately for both primary and secondary servers.

Which next step should be taken to configure Route 53?

A. Create an A record for each server. Associate the records with the Route 53 HTTP health check.

B. Create an A record for each server. Associate the records with the Route 53 TCP health check.

C. Create an alias record for each server with evaluate target health set to yes. Associate the records with the Route 53 HTTP health check.

D. Create an alias record for each server with evaluate target health set to yes. Associate the records with the Route 53 TCP health check.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

A company hosts its website on Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer. The company manages its DNS with Amazon Route 53. and wants to point its domain\’s zone apex to the website.

Which type of record should be used to meet these requirements?

A. A CNAME record for the domain\’s zone apex

B. An A record for the domain\’s zone apex

C. An AAAA record for the domain\’s zone apex

D. An alias record for the domain\’s zone apex

Correct Answer: D

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/Route53/latest/DeveloperGuide/resource-record-sets-choosing-alias-nonalias.html https://docs.aws.amazon.com/Route53/latest/DeveloperGuide/routing-to-elb-load-balancer.html


Question 15:

A large company is using AWS Organizations to manage hundreds of AWS accounts across multiple AWS Regions. The company has turned on AWS Config throughout the organization.

The company requires all Amazon S3 buckets to block public read access. A SysOps administrator must generate a monthly report that shows all the S3 buckets and whether they comply with this requirement. Which combination of steps should the SysOps administrator take to collect this data? {Select TWO).

A. Create an AWS Config aggregator in an aggregator account. Use the organization as the source. Retrieve the compliance data from the aggregator.

B. Create an AWS Config aggregator in each account. Use an S3 bucket in an aggregator account as the destination. Retrieve the compliance data from the S3 bucket

C. Edit the AWS Config policy in AWS Organizations. Use the organization\’s management account to turn on the s3-bucket-public-read-prohibited rule for the entire organization.

D. Use the AWS Config compliance report from the organization\’s management account. Filter the results by resource, and select Amazon S3.

E. Use the AWS Config API to apply the s3-bucket-public-read-prohibited rule in all accounts for all available Regions.

Correct Answer: CD


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Question 1:

You must know the AppleCare name of an Intel iMac before performing which of the following actions?

A. Starting up from OS X Recovery HD.

B. Running Mac Resource Inspector.

C. Replacing the logic board

D. Resetting the NVRAM.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://discussions.apple.com/thread/1516765


Question 2:

Which of the following desktop Macs supports going into Safe Sleep after four hours of inactivity if the computer is using OS X v10.8.2 or newer?

A. iMac (Late 2011)

B. Mac Pro (Mid 2012)

C. Mac mini (Mid 2011)

D. Mac mini (Late 2012)

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://support.apple.com/en-us/HT201635


Question 3:

Which section of Apple Service Guide contains a detailed view of all service parts and their part numbers?

A. Part View

B. Exploded View

C. Service Parts Matrix

D. Parts General Information

Correct Answer: D

Reference: http://tim.id.au/laptops/apple/macbook/mbp15_mid09.pdf


Question 4:

What is the maximum amount of memory that is supported in a dual-processor Mac Pro (Mid 2012)?

A. 64 GB

B. 32GB

C. 16 GB

D. 8 GB

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://support.apple.com/kb/SP652?locale=en_US


Question 5:

Examine the image.

Why is it important to remove the two depicted screws when replacing the hard drive in a MacBook Pro (15-inch, Mid 2012)?

A. You cannot remove the connector on the hard drive if you do not remove these screws.

B. You cannot remove the battery cable with these screws installed.

C. You will prevent strain on the hard drive flex cable by removing them.

D. You will damage the logic board if you do not remove these screws.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Identify the memory module technology used by the MacBook Air (11-inch, Mid 2013) and MacBook Air (13-inch, Mid 2013).

A. DDR3L

B. LPDDR3

C. DDRPC3

D. PLDDR3

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://www.everymac.com/systems/apple/macbook-air/macbook-air-faq/differences- between- macbook-air-mid-2013-mid-2012.html


Question 7:

Linda states that the fans on her MacBook Pro are intermittently noisy. Which is the best component of AST to further isolate the issue?

A. TPT

B. IPT

C. CSD

D. VST

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Which Mac Book Pro listed below can use USB 3 devices at full speed?

A. MacBook Pro (13-inch, Mid 2012)

B. MacBook Pro (13-inch, Late 2011)

C. MacBook Pro (15-inch, Late 2011)

D. MacBook Pro (17-inch, Late 2011)

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://support.apple.com/en-us/HT201163


Question 9:

To power on the system, which of the following can be used on the MacBook Pro (Retina, Mid 2012) and MacBook Pro (Retina, 15-inch, Early 2013 and Late 2013) logic boards?

A. Two switches that can be flipped

B. Two ports that be activated

C. Two pads that can be shorted

D. Two buttons that can be pressed

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Isabelle purchased an AirPort Time Capsule and has questions about where to locate the device in her home. Which of the following is the correct recommendation?

A. Lay the Time Capsule on its side inside a cabinet.

B. Place the Time Capsule on top of a metal cabinet or shelf.

C. Place the Time Capsule as close to a wall or large furniture as possible.

D. Place Time Capsule in an open area where there are few obstructions.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Which of the following parts are built into the top case of MacBook Air (Mid 2013) model computers? SELECT TWO.

A. Keyboard

B. Trackpad

C. Microphone

D. Battery

E. LVDS cable

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.ifixit.com/Guide/MacBook Air 13- Inch Mid 2013 Upper Case Replacement/15404


Question 12:

If an issue is in the Hardware problem space, which of the following should be removed from the Apple product to further isolate the issue?

A. All third party equipment

B. Any third party applications

C. Any third party extensions

D. Any third party frameworks

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Which section of Apple Service Guide contains a diagram for symptoms related to logic board connectors?

A. Quick Checks

B. Block Diagram

C. Exploded View

D. Functional Overview

Correct Answer: D

Reference: http://tim.id.au/laptops/apple/macbook/mbp15_mid2010.pdf (functional overview)


Question 14:

You are using a television attached to the HDMI port of a MacBook Pro (Retina, 15-inch Early 2013) but cannot see the menu bar. What section of the Display pane in System Preferences would help with this issue?

A. Overscan/Underscan

B. Color Profile

C. Detect Displays

D. Gather Windows

Correct Answer: A

Refere https://support.apple.com/en-us/HT202763


Question 15:

A customer brings his MacBook Pro (15-inch, Mid 2012) in for servicing. It is not functioning correctly and you suspect the machine has been damaged by the customer. As you inspect for accidental damage, you should open the lid and confirm that the hinges are working smoothly and inspect the LCD for cracks in the glass. Which of the following should you also do? Select two.

A. Disassemble the SuperDrive to check for debris or dust inside.

B. Look for cracks, dents, or scratches on the exterior of the system.

C. Connect the system to external speakers to check for sound output.

D. Erase all of the customer\’s data and reinstall OS X to test the hard drive.

E. Check for any unusual odors coming from the system, which might indicate spill damage.

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://quizlet.com/8887243/identifying-accidental-damage-flash-cards/


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Question 1:

You want to introduce Jira to your small non-profit organization.

Since you are unsure of the optimal deployment option you have gathered some requirements:

You need to manage a team of up to 15 employees.

You need to be able to track a backlog of staff action items.

You want to easily visualize the progress of ongoing work.

The solution must require minimal administration since your organization only has a part-time IT volunteer.

What solution is most appropriate for your organization?

A. Jira Service Desk Cloud

B. Jira Software Data Center

C. Jira Service Desk Data Center

D. Jira Core Server

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

The marketing team has asked you to embed the trigger tab of an issue collector on several internal web pages and change its size, color, and text.

They also want the ability to track which webpage finally generated the underlying feedback issue.

You are not familiar with advanced issue collector configuration.

Which type of developer should you contact for assistance?

A. Groovy

B. JavaScript

C. Velocity

D. Python

E. SQL

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://confluence.atlassian.com/adminjiracloud/using-the-issue-collector-776636529.html


Question 3:

The configuration details of an SMTP Mail Server of a Jira instance are shown below. The configuration hasn\’t been changed in the last 24 months.

Currently emails are no longer being sent and the failed notifications can be seen in the Mail Error Queue.

What is the likely cause of the failure?

A. Email volume has increased and the Timeout is too low.

B. The SMTP password has expired.

C. The user jira has no valid Jira license.

D. The database and/or server disk is full.

E. The Jira license has expired.

Correct Answer: E


Question 4:

You are moving a workflow from your staging Jira instance to production. On importing the workflow, Jira notifies you that the post-functions will not be imported.

Staging Jira is on version 6.4 and production Jira is on version 6.3.

Why did this happen?

A. The apps installed on staging are not the same as on production.

B. The production and staging instances are using different versions of Jira.

C. You exported the workflow as XML instead of JWB.

D. Custom post-functions are not included in workflow export.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://confluence.atlassian.com/adminjiracloud/importing-and-exporting-issue-workflows-962965084.html


Question 5:

You have planned, tested, and performed a Jira upgrade.

The upgrade appeared to be a success; however, after several hours of use, your users are reporting significant problems and you decide to roll back.

Which two effects do you expect to see after the rollback? (Choose two.)

A. Emails will automatically be sent out to tell people about the rollback.

B. New issues entered between upgrade and rollback will be lost.

C. The color scheme will be set back to default to indicate there was a rollback.

D. Jira will go back to the same schemes as before the upgrade.

E. Jira will need to be reconnected to other systems it was integrated with.

Correct Answer: DE


Question 6:

Your user directories are configured as shown:

The Active Directory administrators have just started the process of copying all the users from the old Company B directory to Company A directory.

During this process, the group membership is being changed to allow for more fine-grained security control.

A large number of migrated users complain that they do not have the correct new group memberships.

Which configuration change should you perform?

A. Reorder the directories so Company A is before Company B.

B. Enable the Crowd user directory.

C. Reorder the directories so the Jira Internal Directory is listed first.

D. Synchronize the Company A directory.

E. Disable the Company A directory.

F. Disable the Company B directory.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

After a recent upgrade to your Jira system, one of the apps your organization depends on is not working reliably. Which two methods can you use to debug and resolve this issue? (Choose two.)

A. Ask the System Administrator for catalina.out logs and inspect for stack traces.

B. Ask the System Administrator to enable the SQL log.

C. Ask the System Administrator to set package com.atlassian to Trace logging level.

D. Ask the System Administrator to add the app to the logger.

E. Ask the System Administrator to set the logging level to FATAL on all package names, Under Logging and Profiling.

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://confluence.atlassian.com/adminjiraserver/logging-and-profiling-938847671.html https://confluence.atlassian.com/crowd/logging-and-profiling-24248601.html


Question 8:

Max wants you to change the way the system fields Created or Updated are being displayed when viewing an issue. How can this be achieved?

A. Adjust the Day Format in the Jira look and Feel configuration.

B. Adjust the jira.date.time.picker.java.format in the advanced settings configuration.

C. Adjust the jira.date.picker.java.format in the advanced settings configuration.

D. Adjust the Complete Date/Time Format in the Jira Look and Feel configuration.

E. Adjust the language and time zone preferences in Max\’s user profile.

Correct Answer: E

Reference: https://virginpulse.zendesk.com/hc/en-us/articles/206180140-The-time-on-my-Max-is-wrong-


Question 9:

Which time tracking configuration can be controlled on a global basis for all projects in Jira?

A. which users or groups have the ability to log work on issues

B. whether time tracking fields are available on standard versus sub-task issue types

C. the default time unit on estimates when users don\’t explicitly specify one

D. which users have the ability to edit or delete their own or other users\’ worklogs

E. whether Original Estimate is required when creating issues

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.softwaretestinghelp.com/jira-time-tracking/


Question 10:

A team complains that many of their issues are in the Closed status, but do not have a resolution set, which causes problems with reporting. The project uses a single workflow.

You want to set the resolution to Done on all existing issues in the Closed status.

Which combination of workflow elements and a bulk operation will achieve this?

A. A temporary transition and a trigger An Edit Issues bulk operation

B. A temporary transition and a post function A Transition Issues bulk operation

C. A screen and the Resolution field A Move Issues bulk operation

D. A screen and a custom field An Edit Issues bulk operation

E. A temporary transition and a screen An Edit Issues bulk operation

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Tom has asked you why the numbers returned by his searches are not right. He shows you three JQL queries:

How can you fix this?

A. Change the query to project = “Cake Baking” and fixVersion ~ 1.1.0.

B. Change the query to project = “Cake Baking” and ( fixVersion is empty or fixVersion != 1.1.0 ).

C. Rename the versions so they do not contain periods.

D. Identify the missing issues and change the permissions so that everyone can see them.

E. Change the query to project = “Cake Baking” and fixVersion not in (1.1.0).

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

One of the HR managers created a filter and shared the subscription with members of the hr-managers group. The filter contains the following valid JQL query:

Manager = currentUser() AND Manager in membersOf(“hr-managers”)

Which issues will be included in the subscription?

A. Only issues where the user who created the filter is listed in the Manager field.

B. Only issues where the group hr-managers is listed in the Manager field.

C. Only issues where the recipient of the email is listed in the Manager field.

D. All issues where the user listed in the Manager field is a member of the hr-managers group.

E. All issues that are assigned to any member of the hr-managers group.

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Some of your project owners would like to make their projects publicly accessible over the Internet. These projects will not require login.

You could support this by allowing read-only anonymous access to the projects.

Which two additional factors should you take into consideration when setting this up? (Choose two.)

A. Anonymous users could see other users\’ names.

B. Anonymous users could export all issues from Jira.

C. Licensed users might accidentally comment anonymously rather than logging in first.

D. Internet search engines could index data.

E. Anonymous users could find a full list of all your projects.

F. Spam bots could add comments.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 14:

You have been asked to take on the administration of a second Jira installation in your company.

You were given the following information about user accounts:

The company standard is to use Active Directory (AD) to provide user accounts.

There are several Active Directory systems in use by different business units.

The second Jira is not to be merged with your main Jira.

The main Jira system is connected to Active Directory for user accounts.

The second Jira is using internal user accounts, not Active Directory.

People using the second Jira are using the same login ID as they would use in Active Directory.

Your company would like to use Single Sign-on (SSO) but has not yet implemented it for either Jira system.

Which authentication method should you recommend?

A. Change the new Jira to use your main Jira\’s directory services, as that is already reading your Active Directory services.

B. Set up a Crowd server to get the user lists from all internal directories and AD, and use AD directly for the password checking.

C. Set up a Crowd server to pull in all the AD services, and plan to migrate internal users.

D. Change the new Jira to link directly to the required AD servers.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Beehive Bank wants to implement Jira with the following requirements:

Enforce the strictest possible security measures for user logins.

Allow external users to create their own user logins.

Use the Jira Internal Directory.

Which two login security options can you offer them? (Choose two.)

A. Set Login Mode to Secure.

B. Require character variety for the user name.

C. Require that a password is not too similar to another user\’s password.

D. Require a certain length for passwords.

E. Require that a password is not too similar to the user name or email address.

Correct Answer: AD


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Question 1:

A client wants customers to be able to select a laptop category from a drop-down list in the Product Configuration section. After the laptop category is selected, all laptops within that category need to be displayed without the user having to do any more selections.

Which option meets this requirement?

A. Formula Administration

B. Util library function

C. Commerce library function

D. Auto Update

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

A multi-select attribute with five options is displayed as check boxes. Depending on the conditions, the Configurator should show a user three of these five options.

How do you accomplish this?

A. by writing a Recommendation rule

B. by writing a Constraint rule

C. by writing a Hiding rule

D. by writing a Pricing rule

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

When implementing Subscription Ordering according the Subscription Ordering Implementation Guide, you are asked to modify the formula for the Price (List) line level attribute.

What must you do to properly modify the formula?

A. Add an initial condition that tests for a valid price value in the Price files of the BOM Item Definition table with a true value of the valid price value.

B. Add an initial condition that tests for the Action Code to be either DELETE or TERMINATE with a true value of zero.

C. Add an initial condition that tests for a valid entry in a specific Subscription Ordering price book with a true value of zero.

D. Add an initial condition that tests for the Action Code to be either DELETE or TERMINATE with a true value of Part Base Price.

E. Add an initial condition that tests for a valid price value in the Price field of the BOM Item Mapping table with a true value of the valid price value.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

What standard functionality would you use to align attribute labels on a configuration screen to that they are evenly distributed vertically?

A. Add spacers in the Configuration Layout and define spacer height

B. Add read-only text area attributes in the layout with the required dimensions

C. Add HTML attributes and use

D. Use CSS

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

A customer sets up a BOM mapping for a Configuration model using a single simple Table-Based BOM Mapping Configuration rule, as well as the BOM Item Definition and BOM Item Mapping Tables. When reviewing their implementation,

they notice the following:

The BOM Root Items Administration List shows the root BOM item and its child BOM items correctly. No errors are displayed. (Accessed from Admin > Products > BOM > BOM Root Items List)

The BOM Mapping Administration List shows no root BOM item or child BOM items. No errors are displayed. (Accessed from the BOM Mapping rule\’s “Save and View Details” button)

Which filed have they incorrectly populated in their BOM Mapping Tables?

A. “Configurable Attribute Variable Name” in the BOM Item Mapping Table

B. “Parent BOM Map Variable Name” in the BOM Item Mapping Table

C. “Root Variable Name” in the BOM Item Definition Table

D. “Parent Variable Name” in the BOM Item Definition Table

E. “Part Number” in the BOM Item Definition Table

F. “BOM Item Variable Name” in the BOM Item Mapping Table

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

The commerce step “Pending” has four participant profiles in the following order: SalesRep, SalesManager, Owner, and Admin.

The Admin profile allows access with the FullAccess user type.

The Owner profile has at performer steps “start” step selected.

The step has an auto-forwarding rule.

A FullAccess user with the SalesGroupA and SalesManagerA groups creates a new quote and saves it, which moves the quote to “Pending”.

The auto-forwarding rule returned the following two lines: SalesManagerA~Company~SalesManager SalesGroupA~Company~SalesRep

Which profile will be used to display the quote in the “Pending” step to this user?

A. SalesManager profile

B. SalesRep profile

C. Admin profile

D. Owner profile

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Using standard functionality, how do you prevent a user from manually adding or removing rows in an array set?

A. by hiding the control attribute and marking it as a forced set

B. by using CSS to hide icons

C. by hiding the control attribute

D. by selecting the “Disable user override” property on the configurable array set editor page

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

In Commerce, what is the order of operations for the standard Modify sequence?

A. Modify tab, Advanced Default function, Formulas, After Formulas Advanced Modify function

B. Modify tab, Before Formulas Advanced Modify function, After Formulas Advanced Modify function

C. Modify tab, Before Formulas Advanced Modify function, Formulas, After Formulas Advanced Modify function

D. Before Formulas Advanced Modify function, Formulas, After Formulas Advanced Modify function

E. Integration, Before Formulas Advanced Modify function, Formulas, After Formulas Advanced Modify function

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Given the following code:

Which statement will return the value for results as 25.0 when it is put in place of the blank line shown above the “}else{” statement?

A. results = stringtofloat (var);

B. results = stringtointeger (var);

C. results = atoi (var);

D. results = atof (var);

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Select two statements that are true about Test Script found in a function debugger. (Choose two.)

A. Test Script describes the various functions used in BML

B. Test Script is template of how the BML function should be written

C. Test Script provides a way to test a BML Library function when array type attributes are input parameters

D. Test Scripts can be used to compute multiple iterations of the library functions and print each

Correct Answer: AC


Question 11:

Along with Part Number, Quantity, and Price, you also want to send additional recommended item details from Configuration to Commerce by using a Recommended Item rule. Which two options enable you to achieve this? (Choose two.)

A. Use the Comment field to pass additional details

B. Pass the additional details by storing them in a Price Book

C. This is not feasible. Only Part Number, Quantity, and Price can be passed from Config to Commerce by using Recommended Item rules

D. Concatenate the additional details to Part Number

E. Use BOM Mapping rules

Correct Answer: AE


Question 12:

Identify three types of activities that are captured in Administration logs. (Choose three.)

A. creation of configuration objects

B. modification of Commerce process objects

C. deployment of configuration product families

D. creation of data tables

E. migrations with the site as target

F. uploading of files in File Manager

Correct Answer: BCE


Question 13:

Which are three testing strategies for Oracle CPQ Cloud? (Choose three.)

A. Perform isolated tests as well as intra-system and cross-system integration tests

B. Test cases should be directly linked to business requirements

C. Avoid using a test case tracking tool because it is time consuming to track all of the testing team\’s efforts

D. Create specific test data for accounts, opportunities, and contracts in the CRM system and use that data to perform end-to-end tests for CPQ Cloud quotes

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 14:

Which three BOM Mapping Tables are required to map Configuration attributes to BOM items and Commerce Transaction Line attributes using a simple Table-Based BOM Mapping Configuration rule? (Choose three.)

A. BOM Attribute Translation

B. BOM Attribute Mapping

C. BOM Attribute Definition

D. BOM Item Definition

E. BOM Item Mapping

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 15:

Identify two standard ways to modify the overall integration behavior of CPQ Cloud and Salesforce. (Choose two.)

A. Use the Site Setup object and CPQ Cloud Commerce Package settings in Salesforce to meet varying customer requirements

B. Write a Salesforce API to change integration behavior in CPQ Cloud

C. Use the integration XSLs within the Commerce process to modify integration behavior at the object and field levels

D. Write a custom BML Util library function in CPQ Cloud

Correct Answer: AC


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Question 1:

What is the key time model statistics that is gathered by the Automatic Workload Repository?

A. Query time

B. User response time

C. Database time

D. Wait event time

Correct Answer: C

The most important of the time model statistics is DB time. This statistics represents the total time spent in database calls and is a indicator of the total instance workload. Reference: Overview of the Automatic Workload Repository, Time Model Statistics


Question 2:

Which role is needed to create Incident Rules in Oracle Enterprise Manager?

A. EM_ALL_ADMINISTRATOR

B. EM_CBA_ADMIN

C. EM_SYSMAN

D. EM_CLOUD_ADMINISTRATOR

E. EM_USER

Correct Answer: D

Enterprise Manager contains three built-in roles for the Database Cloud Service Portal, namely:

M_CLOUD_ADMINISTRATOR: Users with this role can set up and manage the cloud infrastructure. This role is responsible for deploying the cloud infrastructure (servers, zones, storage, and networks) and infrastructure cloud operations for

performance and configuration management.

EM_SSA_ADMINISTRATOR: Users with this role can define quotas and constraints for the self service users and grant them access privileges. Users with this role also have provisioning and patching designer privileges that allow them to

create and save deployment procedures, create and view patch plans, and support the plug-in lifecycle on the Management Agent.

EM_SSA_USER: Users with this role, by default, can only access the Self Service Portal. An administrator with the EM_SSA_ADMINISTRATOR role can provide additional privileges that allow users with the EM_SSA_USER role to access

other features in Enterprise Manager.

Note:

M_CLOUD_ADMINISTRATOR

Enterprise Manager user for setting up and managing the infrastructure cloud. This role could be responsible for deploying the cloud infrastructure (servers, pools, zones) and infrastructure cloud operations for performance and configuration

management.

Incorrect:

Not A: EM_ALL_ADMINISTRATOR

Role has privileges to perform Enterprise Manager administrative operations. It provides Full privileges on all secure resources (including targets) Not B: EM_CBA_ADMIN Role has privileges to manage Chargeback Objects. It provides the

ability to create and view chargeback plans, chargeback consumers, assign chargeback usage, and view any CaT targets.

Not E: EM_USER

Role has privilege to access Enterprise Manager Application.

Reference: Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Administration Guide


Question 3:

What can the Oracle Enterprise Manager Ops Center firmware profile do?

A. Filter based on system type

B. Provide rolling upgrade capability

C. Modify firmware settings

D. Aggregate firmware images

Correct Answer: C

Oracle Enterprise Manager Ops Center uses firmware profiles to provision, or update firmware on an asset.

Reference: Oracle Enterprise Manager Ops Center, Keeping Your Firmware Up-to-Date


Question 4:

Oracle Enterprise Manager Groups enable users to _________.

A. Send email notifications based on Repeat Frequency

B. Specify monitoring and policy settings once and apply them as often as needed

C. Group only homogeneous targets

D. View the summary status of the targets within the group

Correct Answer: B

*

Enterprise Manager Groups enable administrators to logically organize distributed targets for efficient and effective management and monitoring

*

By combining targets in a group, Enterprise Manager provides management features that enable you to efficiently manage these targets as one group. Using the Group functionality, you can:

/ View a summary status of the targets within the group. / Monitor incidents for the group collectively, rather than individually.

/ Monitor the overall performance of the group.

/ Perform administrative tasks, such as scheduling jobs for the entire group, or blacking out the group for maintenance periods.

Reference: Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control Administrator\’s Guide, Managing Groups


Question 5:

When you set up Oracle Enterprise Manager Real Enterprise manager Real user Experience Insight (RUEI), what is needed to establish monitoring of SSL-encrypted HTTP traffic?

A. Monitoring of SSL traffic is not supported by RUEI.

B. Installation of an SSL decryption card is required in the RUEI server.

C. A copy of the SSL key and certificate needs to be uploaded to RUEI.

D. RUEI should negotiate a private SSL key/certificate pair with each web server.

Correct Answer: C

Adding/Uploading HTTP SSL Keys

Uploading SSL keys to the system is extremely important if most of your HTTP traffic is based on SSL sessions. Without the SSL keys being available to the system, the Collector will not be able to decrypt the SSL session traffic. In these circumstances, further configuration of cookies, user identification, and application pages would make little sense. Ensure that you upload and activate your HTTPS SSL keys as early on as possible in the configuration process. The management of SSL keys is fully described in the Oracle Real User Experience Insight User Guide.

Reference: Oracle Real User Experience Insight Installation Guide, Configuring RUEI


Question 6:

Which three abilities are supported by the hardware management function in Oracle Manager Ops Center?

A. Updating the system firmware

B. Configuring the Infiniband fabric

C. discovering the network devices

D. configuring the security devices

E. updating firmware on third party storage

Correct Answer: ABC

A:

*

Oracle Enterprise Manager Ops Center uses firmware profiles to provision, or update firmware on an asset.

*

Oracle Enterprise Manager Ops Center supports a wide variety of hardware resources. This release of Oracle Enterprise Manager Ops Center has been extended to support the firmware update of components such as RAID Controllers,

Expanders, Disks and PDUs. You can now manage the firmware for a variety of hardware resources in Oracle Enterprise Manager Ops Center.

B: Oracle Enterprise Manager Ops Center supports Ethernet and InfiniBand network protocols.

C: In Oracle Enterprise Manager Ops Center, networks become part of a network domain in the following ways:

An asset that has a network is discovered.

A user creates a network.

A network is created when it is required. This is a dynamic network.


Question 7:

You need a workflow of tasks that must be performed for a particular lifecycle management activity.

What Oracle Enterprise management functionality can you use to provide this?

A. Deployment Procedures

B. Connector Framework

C. Configuration Control

D. Diagnostics Pack and Tuning Pack

Correct Answer: A

Enterprise Manager provides a framework for automating, orchestrating, and tracking tasks that can be run on multiple Oracle homes. You can perform complex software life cycle management activities such as provisioning, patching, upgrade, and so on from the Cloud Control console. The workflow of all the tasks that need to be performed for a particular life cycle management activity is encapsulated in a Procedure. A Procedure is a hierarchal sequence of provisioning steps, where each step may contain a sequence of other steps. It provides a framework where specific applications and procedures can be built.

Reference: Oracle Enterprise Manager Lifecycle Management Administrator\’s Guide, About Deployment Procedures


Question 8:

Identify three consolidation choices handled by Oracle Enterprise Cloud Control Consolidation Planner.

A. Physical-to-virtual

B. Database consolidation on Exadata

C. Application consolidation on Exalogic

D. WebLogic consolidation on Exalytics

E. Virtual-to-physical

Correct Answer: ABC

Using Enterprise Manager, you can transform existing data centers into a Cloud environment. Before setting up a Cloud, you should map out your infrastructure requirements, such as the physical and virtual networks, storage arrays, applications and so on.

The Enterprise Manager Consolidation Planner is a powerful tool that helps administrators plan the Cloud architecture. It allows you to identify source and destination targets and applicable technical and functional constraints such as where the application can reside, and so on. You can generate consolidation advisories that may include plans to move from Physical to Virtual (P2V) (A) , Physical to Physical (P2P), or Physical to an Exadata solution (B). The Consolidation Planner can also be used to identify the database consolidation plan which is helpful when setting up Database-as-a-Service (DBaaS).


Question 9:

When you create reports using Information Publisher, which three statements are true?

A. You always start from the beginning when you create custom reports.

B. Both default categories and subcategories can be used for out of the-box reports.

C. Time-period and/or target parameters can be used for viewing reports.

D. Using reporting elements, you can add a variety of information to your report.

E. No additional customization is provided after the reporting elements are assembled.

Correct Answer: BCD

C: By declaring report parameters, you allow the user to control what data is shown in the report. There are two types of parameters: target and time-period.

D: Reporting elements are pre-defined content building blocks, that allow you to add a variety of information to your report. Some examples of reporting elements are charts, tables, and images.

Incorrect:

Not A: To create custom reports:

Choose whether to modify an existing report definition or start from scratch. If an existing report definition closely matches your needs, it is easy to customize it by using the Create Like function.

Not E: Custom Reports

Although the predefined report definitions that come with Information Publisher cover the most common reporting needs, you may want to create specialized reports. If a predefined report comes close to meeting your information

requirements, but not quite, you can use Information Publisher\’s Create Like function to create a new report definition based on one of the existing reports definitions.

Reference: Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control Administrator\’s Guide, sing Information Publisher


Question 10:

Which statement is true when Oracle Enterprise Manager is used with virtual server pools?

A. Can create and delete a virtual server pool

B. Can only create a virtual server pool

C. Can only delete a virtual server pool

D. Cannot create or delete a virtual server pool. That is performed from the command line.

Correct Answer: A

Oracle Enterprise Manager effectively keeps your Oracle VM available and running efficiently. Specifically, it provides a graphical user interface for managing Oracle VM Server, guest virtual machines, and server pools. As with Oracle VM monitoring, administration of Oracle VM begins with the Virtualization Central page. You can perform administration tasks such as the following: Create, remove, and manage virtual server pools Register, deregister, edit, reboot, and stop virtual server Start, stop, suspend, resume, pause, un-pause, and edit guest virtual machines Note:

* A Server Pool is a logical grouping of one or more virtual servers that share common storage. A virtual server can belong to only one virtual server pool at a time. Guest virtual machines and resources are also associated with server pools. Oracle VM Server Pool is an aggregate target type in Enterprise Manager to represent the server pool of Oracle VM Servers.

Reference: Oracle Enterprise Manager Concepts, Virtualization Management, Administering Oracle VM


Question 11:

Which requires a stand-alone Oracle Enterprise Manager Real User Experience Insight (RUEI) license order to utilize user experience management?

A. Oracle Fusion Applications

B. Siebel

C. Custom web applications

D. Oracle E-Business Suite

E. PeopleSoft

Correct Answer: B

The Application Management Suite for Siebel is composed of the following physical components:

Siebel Plug-in (built into Enterprise Manager Cloud Control 12c) Oracle Real User Experience Insight (RUEI) The management suite contains a restricted use license of RUEI for use against the core Siebel application.

Reference: Oracle Enterprise Manager Licensing Information, Application Management


Question 12:

Which statement is true about Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud and Virtualization management?

A. It can perform live migration of the Hypervisor.

B. It can perform live migration of ANSI-compliant Virtual Machines.

C. It can perform live migration of Oracle VMs.

D. It can perform live migration of storage pools.

Correct Answer: C

Live Migration

To take advantage of Enterprise Manager Ops Center\’s live migration capability, the server pool must be configured with the following:

*

Oracle VM for SPARC 2.1 or higher (2.2 is recommended)

*

The SPARC T4 server has a minimum firmware level of 8.1.1 (8.2.0f or higher is recommended)

*

All networks and storage libraries are physically presented to all servers in the server pool as well as being defined in Enterprise Manager Ops Center

*

All CDOMs have network connectivity to all other CDOMs in the server pool.

*

The agent on the CDOMs is must be online.

Reference: Best Practices for Building a Virtualized SPARC Computing Environment


Question 13:

Which statement is true when you perform out-of-place patching with Oracle Enterprise Manager?

A. It is the recommended approach when your Oracle Home does not follow Oracle Flexible Architecture.

B. It is the recommended approach when downtime is not a time constraint.

C. All database are patched simultaneously.

D. You are not able to retrieve the path recommendations because you are not connected to the network.

E. Your original Oracle Home is available for recovery operations.

Correct Answer: E

Using this mechanism [out-of-place patching] means that the only downtime will take place when the Databases from the previous Home are switched to run from the new Home. If there is any issue with the Database patch, you can switch back to the previous unpatched Home since it is still available. So, patch rollback is a lot faster. Note: A new mechanism for patching has been provided in Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control 12c, known as Out of Place Patching. This is now the recommended method and creates a new Oracle Home, which is then patched while the previous Home is still operational. All this is done using an out-of-box Deployment Procedure in Enterprise Manager.

Reference: Ease the Chaos with Automated Patching: Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control 12c


Question 14:

To prepare a collection of servers or clusters with preinstalled database software, what two accounts can be logged in to create the Database Zone?

A. Any account having the EM_SSA_ADMINISTATOR

B. Any account having the EM_ALL_VIEWER role

C. The SYSMAN account

D. Any account having the EM_COMPLIANCE_OFFICER role

E. The SYSOPR account

Correct Answer: AC

To create a Database Zone, you must login using any account with EM_SSA_ADMINISTRATOR role (or SYSMAN).

Incorrect:

Not D: EM_COMPLIANCE_OFFICER

Using this role you can create, modify, and delete compliance standards, compliance standard rules, and Real-time Monitoring facets.

Reference: Database as a Service using Oracle Enterprise Manager 12c Cookbook, Creating a Database Zone


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