Month: June 2022

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Question 1:

On the following picture an administrator configures Identity Awareness:

After clicking “Next” the above configuration is supported by:

A. Kerberos SSO which will be working for Active Directory integration

B. Based on Active Directory integration which allows the Security Gateway to correlate Active Directory users and machines to IP addresses in a method that is completely transparent to the user.

C. Obligatory usage of Captive Portal.

D. The ports 443 or 80 what will be used by Browser-Based and configured Authentication.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80BC_IdentityAwareness/ html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80BC_IdentityAwareness/62050


Question 2:

Which of the completed statements is NOT true? The WebUI can be used to manage user accounts and:

A. assign privileges to users.

B. edit the home directory of the user.

C. add users to your Gaia system.

D. assign user rights to their home directory in the Security Management Server.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Gaia_WebAdmin/73101.htm


Question 3:

In the Check Point Security Management Architecture, which component(s) can store logs?

A. SmartConsole

B. Security Management Server and Security Gateway

C. Security Management Server

D. SmartConsole and Security Management Server

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

View the rule below. What does the lock-symbol in the left column mean? (Choose the BEST answer.)

A. The current administrator has read-only permissions to Threat Prevention Policy.

B. Another user has locked the rule for editing.

C. Configuration lock is present. Click the lock symbol to gain read-write access.

D. The current administrator is logged in as read-only because someone else is editing the policy.

Correct Answer: B

https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/ R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/124265


Question 5:

Which VPN routing option uses VPN routing for every connection a satellite gateway handles?

A. To satellites through center only

B. To center only

C. To center and to other satellites through center

D. To center, or through the center to other satellites, to Internet and other VPN targets

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal? eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=andsolutionid=sk31021


Question 6:

Kofi, the administrator of the ALPHA Corp network wishes to change the default Gaia WebUI Portal port number currently set on the default HTTPS port. Which CLISH commands are required to be able to change this TCP port?

A. set web ssl-port

B. set Gaia-portal port

C. set Gaia-portal https-port

D. set web https-port

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal? eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=andsolutionid=sk83482


Question 7:

True or False: In a Distributed Environment, a Central License can be installed via CLI on a Security Gateway.

A. True, CLI is the prefer method for Licensing

B. False, Central License are handled via Security Management Server

C. False, Central Licenses are installed via Gaia on Security Gateways

D. True, Central License can be installed with CPLIC command on a Security Gateway

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

When a packet arrives at the gateway, the gateway checks it against the rules in the hop Policy Layer, sequentially from top to bottom, and enforces the first rule that matches a packet. Which of the following statements about the order of rule enforcement is true?

A. If the Action is Accept, the gateway allows the packet to pass through the gateway.

B. If the Action is Drop, the gateway continues to check rules in the next Policy Layer down.

C. If the Action is Accept, the gateway continues to check rules in the next Policy Layer down.

D. If the Action is Drop, the gateway applies the Implicit Clean-up Rule for that Policy Layer.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Which of the following is an identity acquisition method that allows a Security Gateway to identify Active Directory users and computers?

A. UserCheck

B. Active Directory Query

C. Account Unit Query

D. User Directory Query

Correct Answer: B

Reference : https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/ CP_R76_IdentityAwareness_AdminGuide/62402.htm


Question 10:

Why would an administrator see the message below?

A. A new Policy Package created on both the Management and Gateway will be deleted and must be backed up first before proceeding.

B. A new Policy Package created on the Management is going to be installed to the existing Gateway.

C. A new Policy Package created on the Gateway is going to be installed on the existing Management.

D. A new Policy Package created on the Gateway and transferred to the Management will be overwritten by the Policy Package currently on the Gateway but can be restored from a periodic backup on the Gateway.

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which command is used to add users to or from existing roles?

A. Add rba user roles

B. Add rba user

C. Add user roles

D. Add user

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Gaia_WebAdmin/73101.htm


Question 12:

Which option, when applied to a rule, allows traffic to VPN gateways in specific VPN communities?

A. All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

B. Accept all encrypted traffic

C. Specific VPN Communities

D. All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Fill in the blank: An identity server uses a __________ for user authentication.

A. Shared secret

B. Certificate

C. One-time password

D. Token

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which of the following blades is NOT subscription-based and therefore does not have to be renewed on a regular basis?

A. Application Control

B. Threat Emulation

C. Anti-Virus

D. Advanced Networking Blade

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Fill in the blank: __________ information is included in “Full Log” tracking option, but is not included in “Log” tracking option?

A. Destination port

B. Data type

C. File attributes

D. Application

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_LoggingAndMonitoring/ html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_LoggingAndMonitoring/131914


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Question 1:

Why are public frameworks, such as 1TIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?

A. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented

B. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt

C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do

D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

The design of IT services requires the effective and efficient use of “the four Ps”.

What are these four Ps?

A. People, process, partners, performance

B. Performance, process, products, plans

C. People, process, products, partners

D. People, products, plans, partners

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Which of the following BEST describes service strategies value to the business?

A. Allows higher volumes of successful change

B. Reduction in unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outages

C. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages

D. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their customers successful

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

A process owner has been identified with an “I” in a RACI matrix.

Which one of the following would be expected of them?

A. Be accountable for the outcome of an activity

B. Perform an activity

C. Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activity

D. Manage an activity

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?

A. Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages

B. Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services

C. Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the service designs that are produced

D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?

A. Informational, scheduled, normal

B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency

C. Informational, warning, exception

D. Warning, reactive, proactive

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?

A. Employers

B. Stakeholders

C. Regulators

D. Accreditors

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

The BEST description of an incident is: A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service

B. An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service

C. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned

D. Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted or not

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?

A. Continual service improvement

B. Change management

C. Service level management

D. Availability management

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?

A. The value of a service

B. Governance

C. Total cost of ownership (TCO)

D. Key performance indicators (KPIs)

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which of these statements about resources and capabilities is CORRECT?

A. Resources are types of service asset and capabilities are not

B. Resources and capabilities are both types of service asset

C. Capabilities are types of service asset and resources are not

D. Neither capabilities nor resources are types of service asset

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

What should a service always deliver to customers?

A. Applications

B. Infrastructure

C. Value

D. Resources

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Availability management is directly responsible for the availability of which of the following?

A. IT services and components

B. IT services and business processes

C. Components and business processes

D. IT services, components and business processes

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which of the following are reasons why ITIL is successful?

1.

ITIL is vendor neutral

2.

It does not prescribe actions

3.

ITIL represents best practice

A. All of the above

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which one of the following includes four stages called Plan, Do, Check and Act?

A. The Deming Cycle

B. The continual service improvement approach

C. The seven-step improvement process

D. The service lifecycle

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

In CSS, the flow-into property deposits:

A. the flow into the content.

B. the regions into a flow.

C. the flow into the regions.

D. content into the flow.

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

The data in a specific HTML5 local storage database can be accessed from:

A. Different browsers on the same device.

B. Different browsers on different devices.

C. The same browser on different devices.

D. The same browser on the same device.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which HTML5 tag defines superscript text?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

What does the following HTML5 code fragment do?

A. It plays the myVacation.avi video if the browser supports it; otherwise, plays the myVacation.ogg video if the browser supports it.

B. It plays two videos: first myVacation.avi, and then myVacation.ogg.

C. It plays both videos simultaneously, myVacation.avi and myVacation.ogg.

D. It prompts the user to choose which format of the myVacation video it should play, .avi or .ogg.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Which attribute prefills a default value for an input element in HTML5?

A. name

B. placeholder

C. autocomplete

D. required

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

You need to use JavaScript to access the “section1” element in the following code fragment:

Which method should you use?

A. getElementsByTagName

B. getElementById

C. getElementsByName

D. getElementsByClassName

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which CSS3 code fragment will style only the external links in an HTML document?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

You work as a senior developer at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com.

You are running a training exercise for junior developers. You are currently discussing a method associated with the localStorage object. The method can be used to write data to local storage.

Which of the following is the method being discussed?

A. The initStorageEvent method.

B. The process method.

C. The setItem method.

D. The setImmediate method.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

You work as a senior developer at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com.

You are running a training exercise for junior developers. You are currently discussing CSS style sheets.

Which of the following is TRUE with regards to CSS style sheets? (Choose all that apply.)

A. It specifies resources for an offline HTML5 application.

B. It specifies resources for an online HTML5 application.

C. It specifies resources for an XML application.

D. It specifies resources for an offline XAML application.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

You work as a senior developer at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com. ABC.com makes use of HTML5 and CSS3 in their development process.

You are developing a page that includes the Geolocation API. You have to include a method in your code that commences listening for updates to the current geographical location of the device running the client.

Which of the following actions should you take?

A. You should consider making use of the setInterval method.

B. You should consider making use of the watchPosition method.

C. You should consider making use of the setItem method.

D. You should consider making use of the setInterval method.

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

You work as a senior developer at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com.

You are running a training exercise for junior developers. You are currently discussing an object of the Geolocation API that has the code and message properties.

Which of the following is the object being discussed?

A. The Coordinates object.

B. The Geolocation object.

C. The PositionError object.

D. The Position object.

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Match the HTML5 input attributes to the corresponding descriptions. (To answer, drag the appropriate attribute from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each attribute may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.)

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 13:

Match the JavaScript objects to the corresponding characteristics or methods. (To answer, drag the appropriate JavaScript object from the column on the left to its characteristic or method on the right. Each JavaScript object may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.)

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 14:

Match the CSS position property values to the corresponding descriptions. (To answer, drag each value from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.)

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


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Question 1:

Which of the following is typical of software licensing in the cloud?

A. Per socket

B. Perpetual

C. Subscription-based

D. Site-based

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

A server administrator wants to run a performance monitor for optimal system utilization. Which of the following metrics can the administrator use for monitoring? (Choose two.)

A. Memory

B. Page file

C. Services

D. Application

E. CPU

F. Heartbeat

Correct Answer: AE


Question 3:

After configuring IP networking on a newly commissioned server, a server administrator installs a straight- through network cable from the patch panel to the switch. The administrator then returns to the server to test network connectivity using the ping command. The partial output of the ping and ipconfig commands are displayed below:

The administrator returns to the switch and notices an amber link light on the port where the server is connected. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the lack of network connectivity?

A. Network port security

B. An improper VLAN configuration

C. A misconfigured DHCP server

D. A misconfigured NIC on the server

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

A user cannot save large files to a directory on a Linux server that was accepting smaller files a few minutes ago. Which of the following commands should a technician use to identify the issue?

A. pvdisplay

B. mount

C. df -h

D. fdisk -l

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Following a recent power outage, a server in the datacenter has been constantly going offline and losing its configuration. Users have been experiencing access issues while using the application on the server. The server technician notices the data and time are incorrect when the server is online. All other servers are working. Which of the following would MOST likely cause this issue? (Choose two.)

A. The server has a faulty power supply

B. The server has a CMOS battery failure

C. The server requires OS updates

D. The server has a malfunctioning LED panel

E. The servers do not have NTP configured

F. The time synchronization service is disabled on the servers

Correct Answer: CF


Question 6:

A company has implemented a requirement to encrypt all the hard drives on its servers as part of a data loss prevention strategy. Which of the following should the company also perform as a data loss prevention method?

A. Encrypt all network traffic

B. Implement MFA on all the servers with encrypted data

C. Block the servers from using an encrypted USB

D. Implement port security on the switches

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

A systems administrator is setting up a server on a LAN that uses an address space that follows the RFC 1918 standard. Which of the following IP addresses should the administrator use to be in compliance with the standard?

A. 11.251.196.241

B. 171.245.198.241

C. 172.16.19.241

D. 193.168.145.241

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://whatis.techtarget.com/definition/RFC-1918


Question 8:

An administrator needs to perform bare-metal maintenance on a server in a remote datacenter. Which of the following should the administrator use to access the server\’s console?

A. IP KVM

B. VNC

C. A crash cart

D. RDP

E. SSH

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://phoenixnap.com/blog/what-is-bare-metal-server


Question 9:

A technician needs to provide a VM with high availability. Which of the following actions should the technician take to complete this task as efficiently as possible?

A. Take a snapshot of the original VM

B. Clone the original VM

C. Convert the original VM to use dynamic disks

D. Perform a P2V of the original VM

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://forsenergy.com/en-us/virtual_help/html/1325909c-5878-4674-a152-3fd3d4e8e3c6.htm


Question 10:

A server administrator receives a report that Ann, a new user, is unable to save a file to her home directory on a server. The administrator checks Ann\’s home directory permissions and discovers the following:

dr-xr-xr– /home/Ann

Which of the following commands should the administrator use to resolve the issue without granting unnecessary permissions?

A. chmod 777 /home/Ann

B. chmod 666 /home/Ann

C. chmod 711 /home/Ann

D. chmod 754 /home/Ann

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://linuxize.com/post/what-does-chmod-777-mean/


Question 11:

Which of the following documents would be useful when trying to restore IT infrastructure operations after a non-planned interruption?

A. Service-level agreement

B. Disaster recovery plan

C. Business impact analysis

D. Business continuity plan

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

A systems administrator is setting up a new server that will be used as a DHCP server. The administrator installs the OS but is then unable to log on using Active Directory credentials. The administrator logs on using the local administrator account and verifies the server has the correct IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway. The administrator then gets on another server and can ping the new server. Which of the following is causing the issue?

A. Port 443 is not open on the firewall

B. The server is experiencing a downstream failure

C. The local hosts file is blank

D. The server is not joined to the domain

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

A systems administrator is preparing to install two servers in a single rack. The administrator is concerned that having both servers in one rack will increase the chance of power issues due to the increased load. Which of the following should the administrator implement FIRST to address the issue?

A. Separate circuits

B. An uninterruptible power supply

C. Increased PDU capacity

D. Redundant power supplies

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which of the following is a method that is used to prevent motor vehicles from getting too close to building entrances and exits?

A. Bollards

B. Reflective glass

C. Security guards

D. Security cameras

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bollard


Question 15:

A technician is installing a variety of servers in a rack. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the technician to take while loading the rack?

A. Alternate the direction of the airflow

B. Install the heaviest server at the bottom of the rack

C. Place a UPS at the top of the rack

D. Leave 1U of space between each server

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

What is not an approach for risk mitigation?

A. Reducing the probability of occurrence by choosing an alternate approach

B. Reducing the impact of the risk by having a plan in place to immediatelyreadto the event.

C. Accepting some of the risks and adding them to the Issues log since they will probably become an issue anyway.

D. Accepting some of the risks from the onset and controlling those risks throughout the project lifecycle.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which Oracle Unified Method phase includes Bid Transition?

A. Project Start Up

B. Project Closure

C. Project Executing and Control

D. Financial Management

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

According to the recommended training for this exam, what is the “triple constraint”?

A. time, resources, quality/scope

B. time, quality/scope, performance

C. client availability, budget, modifications

D. products licensed, service requests limits, annual maintenance

Correct Answer: A

*Scope, Time and Cost together are termed as the Triple Constraints of a Project.

*Risk avoidance involves changing the project plan to eliminate therisk or to protect the project objectives (time, cost, scope, quality) from itsimpact. The team might achieve this by changing scope, adding time, oradding resources (thus

relaxing the so-called “triple constraint”)

Note:


Question 4:

Select three statements that are true about the OUM Implement Core Workflow.

A. It helps accelerate practitioner\’s understanding of the Oracle Unified Method.

B. It helps project teams focus on the essentials.

C. It focuses on custom development projects.

D. It can be used to identify the weak points of a project.

E. It identifies the most important tasks.

F. It focuses on configuration projects.

Correct Answer: ABE

A:OUM Implement Core Workflowshould serve to accelerate the understanding of OUM by new practitioners.

B: The Implement Core Workflow also highlights the tasks that are at the heart of the Implement focus area.

E:The first step is to start from a core set of tasks. We recommend that you consider using the OUM Implement Core Workflow for this purpose along with an OUM view that best matches the needs of your project. Remember, though, that the views tend to be a superset of tasks related to a particular solution, discipline, or technology. Therefore, the core workflow and views should be used together to achieve the right balance for your project.


Question 5:

A client asks a Project Manager to change the format of the project plan. It is expected to be a five hour task. The client has requested this task be completed by the end of the work week and non- billable. Identify two valid responses.

A. All work for the benefit of the client is billable.

B. The client may share existing project plan with his staff for reformatting.

C. The Project Manager gladly accepts the task and sets the expectation that the client can determine which tasks are billable.

D. The Project Manager declines because only the existing format is allowed.

Correct Answer: BC


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Question 1:

A customer claims that while redeploying a web application in the production system all their customers are having to log in again. What do you recommend?

A. Sessions can\’t be preserved when redeploying applications. The customer needs to consider redeployment during late nights when the traffic is low.

B. Change the flag responsible for the development mode of their environment. In the production mode, all sessions are preserved while redeploying application.

C. Change Hotspot to JRockit. Sessions can\’t be preserved on HotSpot when redeploying application.

D. Use flag -version when redeploying the application. This will switch on the Side By Side deployment feature and preserve existing sessions.

E. Open a service request with Oracle Support. This is unexpected behavior. Sessions are preserved without any extra settings.

Correct Answer: D

Restrictions on Production Redeployment Updates

WebLogic Server can host a maximum of two different versions of an application at one time.

Note:

*

When you redeploy a new version of an application, you cannot change: An application\’s deployment targets An application\’s security model A Web application\’s persistent store settings

To change any of the above features, you must first undeploy the active version of the application. Incorrect:

*

(not A)

Production redeployment enables you to update and redeploy an application in a production environment without stopping the application or otherwise interrupting the application\’s availability to clients. Production redeployment saves you the

trouble of scheduling application downtime, setting up redundant servers to host new application versions, manually managing client access to multiple application versions, and manually retiring older versions of an application.

*

(not C) Not dependant on whether the application is JRockit or Hotspot.

*

(not E)

The production redeployment strategy is supported for:

Standalone Web Application (WAR) modules and enterprise applications (EARs) whose clients access the application via a Web application (HTTP).

Enterprise applications that are accessed by inbound JMS messages from a global JMS destination, or from inbound JCA requests.

All types of Web Services, including conversational and reliable Web Services, but not 8.x Web Services.

Production redeployment is not supported for:

Standalone EJB or RAR modules. If you attempt to use production redeployment with such modules, WebLogic Server rejects the redeployment request. To redeploy such modules, remove their version identifiers and explicitly redeploy the

modules.

Applications that use JTS drivers. For more information on JDBC application module limitations, see JDBC Application Module Limitations in Configuring and Managing JDBC Data Sources for Oracle WebLogic Server.

Applications that obtain JDBC data sources via the DriverManager API; in order to use production redeployment, an application must instead use JNDI to look up data sources.

Applications that include EJB 1.1 container-managed persistence (CMP) EJBs. To use production redeployment with applications that include CMP EJBs, use EJB 2.x CMP instead of EJB 1.1 CMP.

Reference: Reference; Deploying Applications to Oracle WebLogic Server 12c, Redeploying Applications in a Production Environment


Question 2:

A common approach to solve application performance issues is to add more hardware. Which two reasons describe why this alone does not always solve performance problems?

A. There may be a bottleneck in the application that additional hardware would not solve.

B. Adding more hardware is costly and time consuming.

C. Adding hardware at the application layer may place additional load on an already overloaded database, network appliance, or storage system.

D. Adding more hardware may introduce new configuration requirements that need to be tested.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 3:

How can you configure High Availability for interacting with a non-Oracle database using WebLogic?

A. Configure multiple physical data sources and reuse the same JNDI name for each.

B. Use the “compatibility” option of Active GridLink to enable compatibility with non-Oracle databases.

C. Configure a single physical data source for each node in a database cluster and wrap it using Multi Data Source.

D. Configure a Data Source Group that contains a physical connection pool to each node in the database cluster.

Correct Answer: C

Note:

*

A multi data source can be thought of as a pool of data sources. Multi data sources are best used for failover or load balancing between nodes of a highly available database system, such as redundant databases or Oracle Real Application Clusters (Oracle RAC).

*

(not B) A single GridLink data source provides connectivity between WebLogic Server and an Oracle Database service, which may include multiple Oracle RAC clusters

*

High Availability Storage Solutions

If you have applications that need access to persistent stores that reside on remote machines after the migration of a JMS server or JTA transaction log, then you should implement one of the following highly- available storage solutions:

/ File-based stores (default or custom)–Implement a hardware solution, such as a dual-ported SCSI disk or Storage Area Network (SAN) to make a file store available from shareable disks or remote machines.

/ JDBC-accessible stores–Configure a JDBC store or JDBC TLOG store and use JDBC to access this store, which can be on yet another server. Applications can then take advantage of any high-availability or failover solutions offered by

your database vendor. In addition, JDBC stores support GridLink data sources and multi data sources, which provide failover between nodes of a highly available database system, such as Oracle Real Application Clusters (Oracle RAC).

Reference: Oracle Fusion Middleware Configuring Server Environments for Oracle WebLogic Server 12c, High Availability Storage Solutions


Question 4:

Identify the three processes that customers can choose for patching WebLogic Server.

A. Download patches from My Oracle Support and manage them using Smart Update.

B. Use Enterprise Manager to download patches from My Oracle Support and apply patches to WebLogic.

C. Download patches from My Oracle Support and manually modify the classpath of the application server (though it is not recommended).

D. Download patches from My Oracle Support and apply them using the WebLogic Admin Console.

E. Use the Admin Console to connect to My Oracle Support and download patches and then target them to the domain.

Correct Answer: ABC

A: Oracle Smart Update is a standalone Java application that is automatically installed in the Middleware home utils/bsu directory. Smart Update simplifies the process of applying patches to your WebLogic Server installation. When support makes a patch available for an installed version of WebLogic Server, you download the patch from My Oracle Support and then use Oracle Smart Update to apply it to your installation. Smart Update organizes all available updates for you, and has several features that allow a great deal of customizing in the way various patches are applied and managed in your environment.

B: As part of a new Enterprise Manager system, the installation wizard does the following:

* Oracle My Oracle Support Management Plug-In etc.

C: Applying patch from server start script:

After downloading the patch (jar file) follow the below steps:

-Stop your server.

– Then take the path of the folder which has the CRxxxxxx_xxxmpx.jar file and copy it in the CLASSPATH of setDomainEnv.cmd which is in

(/user_projects/domains//bin/setDomainEnv.cmd)

For example, the script would look something like this:

set CLASSPATH=%PRE_CLASSPATH%;%WEBLOGIC_CLASSPATH%;

C:\extra\my_projects\doc\CR\CR218639_920mp3.jar;C:\extra\my_projects\doc \CR\ CR360676_920mp3.jar;C:\extra\my_projects\doc\CR\CR367966_920mp3.jar;

C:\extra\my_projects\doc\CR\CR368155_920mp3.jar;C:\extra\my_projects\doc\CR\CR370311_ 920mp3.jar

-Re-start your server.

-You should see the patch applied in the stdout file.


Question 5:

You want to migrate an application that was developed for OAS/OC4J to WebLogic. The application uses Oracle Streams Advanced Queuing (AQ). You configured a Foreign JMS Server and Data Source but you are not able to send messages to the AQ destination and see them reach the database. Which two things are missing in this configuration?

A. nothing, there may be a network connection issue

B. a Foreign JMS Connection Factory

C. a JMS Bridge to map the JNDI of the Local JMS Destination to the remote AQ destination

D. a mapping of the Foreign JMS Connection Factory to the Data Source where AQ is configured and installed.

E. Oracle AQ Java EE Shared Libraries not deployed and referenced by your application

Correct Answer: CE

C:

*

A WebLogic Messaging Bridge communicates with the configured source and target bridge destinations. For each mapping of a source destination to a target destination, you must configure a messaging bridge instance. Each messaging bridge instance defines the source and target destination for the mapping, a message filtering selector, a QOS, transaction semantics, and various reconnection parameters.

Note:

*

In your JMS Foreign Server configuration:

/ Specify oracle.jms.AQjmsInitialContextFactory as the JNDI Initial Context Factory. / Configure the JDBC data sources needed for your application environment.


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Question 1:

When atempang to log in with the vSphere Web Client, users have reported the error: Incorrect Username/Password The administrator has confgured the Platorm Services Controller Idenaty Source as: Type. Acave Directory as an LDAP Server Domain: vmware.com Alias: VMWARE Default Domain: Yes Which two statements would explain why users cannot login to the vSphere Web Client? (Choose two.)

A. Users are typing the password incorrectly.

B. Users are in a forest that has 1-way trust.

C. Users are in a forest that has 2-way trust.

D. Users are logging into vCenter Server with incorrect permissions.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 2:

An administrator runs the command esxcli storage core device list and sees the following output:

mpx.vmhba1:C0:T0:L0 Display Name: RAID 5 (mpx.vmhba1:C0:T0:L0) Has Setable Display Name: false SizE. 40960 Device Type: Direct-Access Mulapath Plugin: NMP Devfs Path: /vmfs/devices/disks/mpx.vmhba1:C0:T0:L0 Status: of Is

Local: true

What can be determined by this output?

A. The device is a being used for vFlash Read Cache.

B. The device is in a Permanent Device Loss (PDL) state.

C. The device is a local Solid State Device (SSD).

D. The device is in an All Paths Down (APD) state.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Which two statements are true regarding Storage Mulapathing Plug-Ins? (Choose two.)

A. The default Path Selecaon Policy is VMW_PSP_MRU for iSCSI or FC devices.

B. The default Path Selecaon Policy is VMW_PSP_FIXED for iSCSI or FC devices.

C. VMW_PSP_MRU is typically selected for ALUA arrays by default.

D. VMW_PSP_FIXED is typically selected for ALUA arrays by default.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 4:

Which fle determines the locaaon of the installaaon script during a scripted upgrade?

A. boot.cfg

B. ks.cfg

C. script.cfg

D. upgrade.cfg

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which two vCenter Server services are migrated automaacally as part of an upgrade from a Distributed vCenter Server running 5.x? (Choose two.)

A. vCenter Single Sign-on Service

B. vSphere Web Client

C. vSphere Inventory Service

D. Storage Policy Based Management

Correct Answer: BC


Question 6:

When imporang an exisang SSL cerafcate into vSphere Replicaaon Server, which fle format is required?

A. PKCS#12

B. DER

C. PEM

D. PKCS#7

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

An administrator decides to change the root password for an ESXi 6.x host to comply with the company\’s security policies. What are two ways that this can be accomplished? (Choose two.)

A. Use the Direct Console User Interface to change the password.

B. Use the passwd command in the ESXi Shell.

C. Use the password command in the ESXi Shell.

D. Use the vSphere client to update local users.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 8:

Afer successfully adding a new ESXi 6.x host to vCenter Server, an administrator sees it as Not Responding in the vSphere Web Client interface a few minutes later. If the issue is caused by a network frewall blocking trafc, which port must be opened to correct this specifc problem?

A. 443 (TCP)

B. 443 (UDP)

C. 902 (TCP)

D. 902 (UDP)

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

An administrator uses the df -h command and noaces that an NFS datastore is reporang a capacity of 0 Bytes. What condiaon would cause this to occur?

A. The NFS server on which the datastore resides is down.

B. The datastore was mounted as Read/Write.

C. The datastore was mounted as Read-Only.

D. The datastore was created with NFS version 4.1.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

An administrator is atempang to enable Legacy Fault Tolerance (FT) on a virtual machine and observes the following in the vSphere Web Client:

Fault Tolerance has not been licensed on host .

What is the minimum licensed ediaon that supports this confguraaon?

A. Standard

B. Enterprise

C. Enterprise Plus

D. Essenaals Plus

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

How does vSphere High Availability calculate the memory slot size of a virtual machine?

A. Virtual machine memory reservaaon overhead of largest virtual machine

B. Virtual machine memory reservaaon – overhead of largest virtual machine

C. Virtual machine memory reservaaon overhead of smallest virtual machine

D. Virtual machine memory reservaaon – overhead of smallest virtual machine

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Refer to the Exhibit.

The Exhibit shows the status of vmhba32 and vmhba33 as Unbound. What is a likely reason for this status?

A. The host bus adapter is not associated with a vmknic.

B. The Dynamic Target Discovery was not confgured.

C. The Staac Target Discovery was not confgured.

D. The host bus adapter is not associated with a vmnic.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Refer to the Exhibit.

An administrator receives an error on a vSphere cluster as shown in the Exhibit. Based on the exhibit, which three confguraaon changes can resolve the error? (Choose three.)

A. Change the Admission Control policy for the cluster.

B. Adjust CPU and Memory reservaaons of the virtual machines.

C. Increase the amount of failover resources in the cluster.

D. Reconfgure the ESXi host cluster for High Availability.

E. Disable Virtual Machine Monitoring.

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 14:

An administrator is confguring an idenaty source for Single Sign-On. The administrator will use the machine that Single Sign-On is running on, but does not want all users on the machine to be visible to SSO. Which Idenaty Source meets this requirement?

A. Acave Directory (Integrated Windows Authenacaaon)

B. Acave Directory as an LDAP Service

C. OpenLDAP

D. LocalOS

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which two statements are true regarding upgrading ESXi 6.x hosts using a USB fash drive? (Choose two.)

A. The ks.cfg fle must be available to the ESXi 6.x host during bootup on a TFTP server.

B. The USB fash drive must be formated using Fat32.

C. A paraaon table must be manually created on the USB fash device.

D. The USB fash drive must be mounted from a Windows device with sysconfg installed.

Correct Answer: BC


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Question 1:

A case worker would like to send an instant announcement to other case workers in the IBM Case Manager environment. How can this be done?

A. By adding a comment to the case.

B. By using the external email system.

C. By using the IBM Sametime integrated feature.

D. By creating a case with the announcement as a property.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Business Analyst John Smith has a user ID and valid password configured with IBM Case Manager but has not been assigned to a project area. Which statement is true?

A. John Smith cannot login to Case Manager Builder.

B. John Smith can only work in the default project area.

C. John Smith can login to Case Manager Builder, but cannot create a solution.

D. John Smith can login to Case Manager Builder, but cannot deploy a solution.

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

There are two recommended methods used to copy a solution : Case Manager Builder and what other tool?

A. IBM Content Engine API

B. IBM FileNet Workplace XT

C. IBM FileNet Enterprise Manager

D. IBM Case Manager Administration Client

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

When creating a new solution from a template, how long should the new solution name be?

A. Any length

B. Less than 58 characters

C. Less than 999 characters

D. Greater than 8 characters

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

A solution designer would like to use a FileNet eform to add a case in ICM. The form template has already been created in the eforms designer. Which step(s) need to be performed to make this form available to add a case?

A. Check in the form template of type Document class using WorkplaceXT.

B. Check in the form template of type ITXFormTemplate class using WorkplaceXT.

C. Check in the form template of type Document class using WorkplaceXT; Configure the Case Form Widget in the Add Case Form page with this version series ID of the checked in form template.

D. Check in the form template of type ITXFormTemplate class using WorkplaceXT; Configure the Case Form Widget in the Add Case Form page with this version series ID of the checked in form template.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Which application is used to modify the Case Monitor data stream objects when exposing a case property to a Cognos Real-time Monitoring dashboard?

A. Case Manager Builder

B. Process Configuration Console

C. Cognos Real-time Monitoring Dashboard

D. Cognos Real-time Monitoring Workbench

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

How do workflow and case properties get synchronized within a task?

A. A post condition needs to be added to sync the data fields.

B. A separate ICM system task completes the synchronization.

C. ICM automatically adds a post condition to sync the data fields.

D. They are automatically synchronized because they are named the same.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Which of the following is NOT part of iLog JRules?

A. Rule Project

B. Rules Team Server

C. Ruleset Components

D. Ruleset Archive Components

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

What are the three default spaces installed with IBM Case Manager?

A. Command space, Work space, and Search space.

B. Solution space, Work Pages space, and Case Step space.

C. Solution space, Case Pages space, and Step Pages space.

D. Solution Pages space, Pages space, and Case Step space.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

When designing a task, what is the purpose for creating a system step?

A. To configure within Process Designer the ability for a custom UI Step.

B. To configure within Case Builder the ability to call a Web Service Step.

C. To configure within Case Builder the ability to call a CE_Operation Step.

D. To configure within Process Designer the ability to call a CE_Operation Step.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

What is the web-based Content Analytics application that helps with rapid insights detection?

A. Cognos RTM

B. Case Manager Client

C. Text Miner application

D. Case Management Administration Client

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

What, at a minimum, must a solution template contain?

A. A solution definition file.

B. A URL to the object store.

C. A Process Engine configuration file.

D. A Pages subfolder containing the pages used for deployment.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Which tool is used to configure IBM FileNet Case Analyzer engine?

A. Workplace XT

B. Case Manager Builder

C. Process Task Manager

D. IBM Case Manager Administration Client

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

When working with Real Time Monitor, which statement regarding dimensions is true?

A. Dimensions represent the rows in a table.

B. Dimensions are ranked orders of related data.

C. Dimensions indicate how long a data element is.

D. Dimensions use cubes to represent data in a query.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which tool is used to deploy solutions in a production environment?

A. Workplace XT

B. Case Manager Builder

C. FileNet Enterprise Manager

D. IBM Case Manager Administration Client

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

What is required in a presentation for business analysts?

A. Budgetary considerations and requests

B. Operational process changes

C. Detailed statistical explanation of the applicable modeling theory

D. The presentation author\’s credentials

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which process in text analysis can be used to reduce dimensionality?

A. Stemming

B. Parsing

C. Digitizing

D. Sorting

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

You have been assigned to run a logistic regression model for each of 100 countries, and all the data is currently stored in a PostgreSQL database. Which tool/library would you use to produce these models with the least effort?

A. MADlib

B. Mahout

C. RStudio

D. HBase

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Your colleague, who is new to Hadoop, approaches you with a question. They want to know how best to access their data. This colleague has previously worked extensively with SQL and databases.

Which query interface would you recommend?

A. Hive

B. Pig

C. Howl

D. HBase

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

When would you use GROUP BY ROLLUP clause in your OLAP query?

A. where all subtotals and grand totals are to be included in the output

B. where only the subtotals are to be included in the output

C. where only the grand totals are to be included in the output

D. where only specific subtotals and grand totals for a combination of variables are to be included in the output

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

A data scientist is given an R data frame (i.e., empdata) with the following columns:

Age

Salary

Occupation

Education Gender

The scientist wants to examine only the Salary and Occupation columns for ages greater than `40\’. Which command extracts the appropriate rows and columns from the data frame?

A. empdata[empdata$Age > 40, c(“Salary”,”Occupation”)]

B. empdata[c(“Salary”,”Occupation”), empdata$Age > 40]

C. empdata[Age > 40, (“Salary”,”Occupation”)]

D. empdata[, c(“Salary”,”Occupation”)]$Age > 40

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

You ran a linear regression, and the final output is seen in the exhibit.

Based only on the information in the exhibit and an acceptable confidence level of 95%, how would you interpret the interaction of variable D with the dependent variable?

A. In this model, Variable D is not significantly interacting with the dependent variable

B. For every 1 unit increase in variable D, holding all other variables constant, we can expect the dependent variable to increase by 10.23 units

C. For every 1 unit increase in variable D, holding all other variables constant, we can expect the dependent variable to be multiplied by 10.23 units

D. Variable D is more significant than variables A, B, and C.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit.

You have scored your Naive bayesian classifier model on a hold out test data for cross validation and determined the way the samples scored and tabulated them as shown in the exhibit. What are the the False Positive Rate (FPR) and the False Negative Rate (FNR) of the model?

A. FPR = 15/262 FNR = 26/288

B. FPR = 26/288 FNR = 15/262

C. FPR = 262/15 FNR = 288/26

D. FPR = 288/26 FNR = 262/15

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which data asset is an example of semi-structured data?

A. XML data file

B. Database table

C. Webserver log

D. News article

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

When is a Wilcoxon Rank-Sum test used?

A. When an assumption about the distribution of the populations cannot be made

B. When the data can be easily sorted

C. When the populations represent the sums of other values

D. When the data cannot be easily sorted

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Consider the example of an analysis for fraud detection on credit card usage. You will need to ensure higher-risk transactions that may indicate fraudulent credit card activity are retained in your data for analysis, and not dropped as outliers during pre-processing. What will be your approach for loading data into the analytical sandbox for this analysis?

A. ELT

B. ETL

C. EDW

D. OLTP

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

In the exhibit, the x-axis represents the derived probability of a borrower defaulting on a loan. Also in the exhibit, the pink represents borrowers that are known to have not defaulted on their loan, and the blue represents borrowers that are known to have defaulted on their loan.

Which analytical method could produce the probabilities needed to build this exhibit?

A. Logistic Regression

B. Linear Regression

C. Discriminant Analysis

D. Association Rules

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Which chart type is the most effective way to show trends over time?

A. Line Chart

B. Bar Chart

C. Stacked Bar Chart

D. Histogram

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

What does R code nv <- v[v < 1000] do?

A. Selects the values in vector v that are less than 1000 and assigns them to the vector nv

B. Sets nv to TRUE or FALSE depending on whether all elements of vector v are less than

C. Removes elements of vector v less than 1000 and assigns the elements >= 1000 to nv

D. Selects values of vector v less than 1000, modifies v, and makes a copy to nv

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

What is an appropriate data visualization to use in a presentation for a project sponsor?

A. Bar chart

B. Pie chart

C. Box and Whisker plot

D. Density plot

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

When the command echo $ outputs 1, which of the following statements is true?

A. It is the process ID of the echo command.

B. It is the process ID of the current shell.

C. It is the exit value of the command executed immediately before echo.

D. It is the exit value of the echo command.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which of the following commands puts the output of the command date into the shell variable mydate?

A. mydate=”$(date)”

B. mydate=”exec date”

C. mydate=”$((date))”

D. mydate=”date”

E. mydate=”${date}”

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which of the following files, when existing, affect the behavior of the Bash shell? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A. ~/.bashconf

B. ~/.bashrc

C. ~/.bashdefaults

D. ~/.bash_etc

E. ~/.bash_profile

Correct Answer: BE


Question 4:

What output will the following command produce?

seq 1 5 20

A. 1

B. 1

C. 1

D. 2

E. 5

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which of the following words is used to restrict the records that are returned from a SELECT SQL query based on a supplied criteria for the values in the records?

A. CASE

B. FROM

C. WHERE

D. IF

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Which of the following commands lists all defined variables and functions within Bash?

A. env

B. set

C. env -a

D. echo $ENV

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

What is the purpose of the file /etc/profile?

A. It contains the welcome message that is displayed after login.

B. It contains security profiles defining which users are allowed to log in.

C. It contains environment variables that are set when a user logs in.

D. It contains default application profiles for users that run an application for the first time.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

The X11 configuration file xorg.conf is grouped into sections.

How is the content of the section SectionName associated with that section?

A. It is placed in curly brackets as in Section SectionName { … }.

B. It is placed between a line containing Section “SectionName” and a line containing EndSection.

C. It is placed between the tags

and

D. It is placed after the row [SectionName].

E. It is placed after an initial unindented Section “SectionName” and must be indented by exactly one tab character.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

How is a display manager started?

A. It is started by a user using the command startx.

B. It is started like any other system service by the init system.

C. It is started by inetd when a remote hosts connects to the X11 port.

D. It is started automatically when a X11 user logs in to the system console.

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which of the following are tasks handled by a display manager like XDM or KDM? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A. Start and prepare the desktop environment for the user.

B. Configure additional devices like new monitors or projectors when they are attached.

C. Handle the login of a user.

D. Lock the screen when the user was inactive for a configurable amount of time.

E. Create an X11 configuration file for the current graphic devices and monitors.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 11:

Which of the following steps prevents a user from obtaining an interactive login session?

A. Run the command chsh -s /bin/false with the user name.

B. Set the UID for the user to 0.

C. Remove the user from the group staff.

D. Add the user to /etc/noaccess.

E. Create a .nologin file in the user\’s home directory.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

In case neither cron.allow nor cron.deny exist in /etc/, which of the following is true?

A. Without additional configuration, no users may have user specific crontabs.

B. Without additional configuration, all users may have user specific crontabs.

C. The cron daemon will refuse to start and report missing files in the system\’s logfile.

D. When a user creates a user specific crontab the system administrator must approve it explicitly.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Which file contains the date of the last change of a user\’s password?

A. /etc/gshadow

B. /etc/passwd

C. /etc/pwdlog

D. /etc/shadow

E. /var/log/shadow

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Each entry in a crontab must end with what character?

A. Tab

B. Space

C. Backslash

D. Newline

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

What is NOT contained in the locale setting of the operating system?

A. currency symbol

B. language

C. timezone

D. thousands separator

Correct Answer: C