Month: May 2022

Free Sharing Updated 2V0-62.21 VCE and PDF Exam Practice Materials

Tens of thousands of competitors, pages of hard questions and unsatisfied exam preparation situations… Do not worried about all those annoying things! We, help you with your VCP-DW 2021 May 31,2022 Newest 2V0-62.21 exam questions Professional VMware Workspace ONE 21.X exam. We will assist you clear the Newest 2V0-62.21 vce exam with VCP-DW 2021 2V0-62.21 pdf. We 2V0-62.21 real exam questions are the most comprehensive ones.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 2V0-62.21 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the 2V0-62.21 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 2V0-62.21 dumps.Questions and answers from 2V0-62.21 free dumps are 100% free and guaranteed. See our full 2V0-62.21 dumps if you want to get a further understanding of the materials.

Question 1:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the device operating system on the left into the box associated with its third party messaging solution.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 2:

As a Workspace ONE administrator, you have been tasked with creating a custom visualization for management that shows device statistics, trust network threats, and application adoption metrics in a single view.

Which feature of Workspace ONE can be used?

A. Workspace ONE Intelligence Dashboards

B. Workspace ONE Access Application View

C. Workspace ONE Intelligence Automations

D. Workspace ONE UEM Device List View

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://techzone.vmware.com/resource/workspace-one-intelligence-architecture#workspace-one-uem


Question 3:

Which Workspace ONE UEM feature can assist in sending event log information to a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) tool?

A. Syslog Integration

B. Relay Server Integration

C. Certificate Authority Integration

D. File Storage Integration

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Which two steps would an administrator complete to enable auto-discovery for their Workspace ONE UEM environment? (Choose two.)

A. Enter the email domain when installing the AirWatch Cloud Connector.

B. Verify the domain by accepting the link in the email that registered auto-discovery.

C. Register email domain within Workspace ONE UEM.

D. Enter the email domain when establishing directory services.

E. Email [email protected] with the domain the administrator wants to register.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 5:

Where is Hub Services component co-located?

A. Workspace ONE Intelligence

B. Workspace ONE Access

C. Workspace ONE Airlift

D. Workspace ONE UEM

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Which two Workspace ONE UEM core components are required for all on-premises environments? (Choose two.)

A. Device Services

B. AirWatch Cloud Connector

C. Unified Access Gateway

D. Secure Email Gateway

E. Console Services

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://techzone.vmware.com/resource/workspace-one-uem-architecture#scalability


Question 7:

An administrator would like to track these details for all Windows desktops managed by Workspace ONE UEM:

driver details for a mouse driver warranty information for OS registry value of internal apps

Which Workspace ONE UEM utility can the administrator use?

A. Create LGPO and assign to Windows devices.

B. Create sensors and assign to Windows devices.

C. Create an OEM update profile and assign to Windows devices.

D. Create Application Control profile and assign to Windows devices.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Workspace-ONE-UEM/services/Windows_Desktop_Device_Management/GUID-uemWindeskSensors.html


Question 8:

When using Workspace ONE 20.x and higher, which three ways can an administrator using UEM automatically move devices into specified organization groups? (Choose three.)

A. user group mappings

B. device type mappings

C. location based mappings

D. IP-based mappings

E. device ownership mappings

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 9:

What product from Workspace ONE needs to be enabled to provide administrators a flexible method for alerting and informing end-users?

A. AirWatch Cloud Connector

B. Workspace ONE Intelligence

C. Workspace ONE Hub Services

D. VMware Tunnel

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://techzone.vmware.com/automating-notifications-workspace-one-operational-tutorial#_1267872


Question 10:

What component of the Hub Services can be integrated with Physical Access Control Systems to allow the Workspace ONE Intelligent app on mobile devices to act as digital badge?

A. Hub Employee Self-service

B. Hub Passport

C. Hub Catalog

D. Hub Access

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which administrative console is used to change to an organization logo (branding) in the Intelligent Hub Catalog?

A. Workspace ONE Access

B. Workspace ONE Hub Services

C. Workspace ONE

D. Workspace ONE UEM

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Workspace-ONE/services/intelligent-hub_IDM/GUID-DD632B89-7457-4764-B14F-48AAFAAC8113.html


Question 12:

Which is true about Workspace ONE compatibility when deploying content across different device types?

A. Content cannot be distributed to iOS devices.

B. Content cannot be distributed by Workspace ONE.

C. Content can be distributed to devices types including iOS, Android, Windows, and MacOS.

D. Content can be distributed to devices types including iOS, Android, and Windows.

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

A Workspace ONE UEM administrator is migrating collections, applications, and policies from SCCM to Workspace ONE.

When using AirLift, which three of the following must the administrator allow AirLift to access on the ConfigMgr server? (Choose three.)

A. Port 443 or specified TLS port if Secure Connection is configured

B. WinRM port (typically 5985)

C. Port 3268 or the specified Global Catalog port

D. Port 389 for Active Directory

E. Interactive Login Permissions

Correct Answer: ABE

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Workspace-ONE-UEM/services/WS1_AirLift_Configuration.pdf (7)


Question 14:

Which protocol does Workspace ONE use to communicate with third party Identity Providers?

A. SAML

B. Kerberos

C. RADIUS

D. OAuth

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which three Workspace ONE Edge Services are included in Unified Access Gateway? (Choose three.)

A. AirWatch Cloud Connector

B. Content Gateway

C. Secure Email Gateway

D. Workspace ONE Intelligence Connector

E. VMware Tunnel

Correct Answer: BCE


Free Sharing Updated C2090-619 VCE and PDF Exam Practice Materials

Tens of thousands of competitors, pages of hard questions and unsatisfied exam preparation situations… Do not worried about all those annoying things! We, help you with your IBM Certified System Administrator May 30,2022 Newest C2090-619 practice IBM Informix 12.10 System Administrator exam. We will assist you clear the Hotest C2090-619 pdf dumps exam with IBM Certified System Administrator C2090-619 real exam questions. We latest C2090-619 dumps are the most comprehensive ones.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest C2090-619 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the C2090-619 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our C2090-619 dumps.If you need to check sample questions of the C2090-619 free dumps, go through the Q and As from C2090-619 dumps below.

Question 1:

Which configuration parameter can toggle the automatic expansion of storage spaces?

A. SP_AUTOGROW

B. SP_AUTO_SPACE

C. SP_AUTOEXPAND

D. SP_EXPAND_ENABLE

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which configuration parameter should be set to enable asynchronous page requests when the database server detects that a query is waiting on I/O?

A. DIRECT_IO

B. DBUPSPACE

C. AUTO_AIOVPS

D. AUTO_READAHEAD

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Which configuration parameter can be set to quickly return rows to a user while a query continues processing?

A. OPTOFC

B. OPTMSG

C. OPT_GOAL

D. OPTCOMPIND

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Which statement is FALSE about Informix Automatic checkpoint Feature?

A. Automatic checkpoints cause less logical log activity.

B. Automatic checkpoints try to avoid transaction blocking.

C. Automatic checkpoints cause the database server to trigger more frequent checkpoints.

D. Automatic checkpoints can be dynamically enabled or disabled by using onmode -wm or onmode -wf.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Consider the following statements: DBSPACETEMP=tempdbs1, tempdbs2, tempdbs3; CREATE DATABASE mydb WITH LOG IN datadbs1; CREATE TEMP TABLE temp1 (col1 int); Which statement is true?

A. The temp table will be created in datadbs1.

B. The temp table will be created in root dbspace.

C. The temp table will be careated in one of the dbspaces listed in DBSPACTEMP.

D. The temp table will be created round-robin across the dbspaces in DBSPACETEMP.

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

In which table can you find a history of all SQL Administration API functions executed in the last 30 days?

A. sysadmin:admin_history

B. sysmaster:admin_history

C. sysadmin:command_history

D. sysmaster:command_history

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

You need to create a new role for users on stores database. Which system catalog table can be checked to ensure the uniqueness of the new role name?

A. stores:sysusers

B. sysmaster:sysroles

C. sysuser:sysroleauth

D. sysmaster:sysusers

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Which SQL statement is valid to monitor database server sessions?

A. EXECUTE FUNCTION task (“onstat”,”-g ses”);

B. EXECUTE FUNCTION task (“view sessions”,”all”);

C. EXECUTE FUNCTION task (“check sessions”,”all”);

D. EXECUTE FUNCTION task (“check server”,”sessions”);

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which is NOT a component of the IBM Mobile Database offering?

A. IBM DB2

B. IBM Informix

C. IBM solidDB

D. IBM InfoSphere Warehouse

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

When configuring Informix server for DRDA connection, which statement is true?

A. The connection protocol must be drsoctcp.

B. The database server name for DRDA connection must correspond to the DBSERVERNAME onconfig parameter.

C. The database server name for DRDA connection must correspond to the DBSERVERALIASES onconfig parameter.

D. The database server name should correspond to either the DBSERVERNAME or the DBSERVERALIASES onconfig parameter.

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Logical log files must always reside in rootdbs.

B. Having too little log space does not affect performance.

C. Having too much log space does not affect performance.

D. Simple large objects in blobspaces are not logged and they are included in the log backup in which the object was created.

E. Simple large objects in blobspaces are not logged and they are not included in the log backup in which the object was created.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 12:

Which two logging modes are compatible between two databases participating in a distributed query? (Choose two.)

A. ANSI and non-ANSI

B. Buffered and Unbuffered

C. Buffered and Non-logging

D. Non-logging and Unbuffered

E. Non-logging and Non-logging

Correct Answer: BE


Question 13:

Which is NOT a feature of onbar backups?

A. The ability to parallelize backups.

B. The ability to do a point-in-time restore.

C. The ability to backup without a storage manager.

D. The ability to do an external backup using a Storage Area Network.

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which statement accurately describes the selective row-level auditing feature in Informix?

A. Auditing can be configured so that row-level events of only selected views are recorded in the audit trail.

B. Auditing can be configured so that row-level events of only selected tables are recorded in the audit trail.

C. Auditing can be configured so that events of only selected rows within a table are recorded in the audit trail.

D. Auditing can be configured so that row-level events of only selected partitions are recorded in the audit trail.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which two technologies use the ENCRYPT_MAC configuration parameter to control the level of message authentication code (MAC) generation? (Choose two.)

A. On-disk encryption

B. Enterprise Replication

C. Column level encryption

D. High-Availability Data Replication

E. Server-to-server distributed query communication

Correct Answer: BD


Pass dea-2tt3 Exam By Practicing Latest dea-2tt3 VCE and PDF Braindumps

Tens of thousands of competitors, pages of hard questions and unsatisfied exam preparation situations… Do not worried about all those annoying things! We, help you with your Cloud Infrastructure Newest dea-2tt3 practice Dell EMC Cloud Infrastructure and Services v3 (DEA-2TT3) exam. We will assist you clear the May 29,2022 Latest dea-2tt3 study guide exam with Cloud Infrastructure dea-2tt3 vce. We dea-2tt3 practice tests are the most comprehensive ones.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest dea-2tt3 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the dea-2tt3 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our dea-2tt3 dumps.We have sample questions for dea-2tt3 free dumps. You can download and check the real questions of updated dea-2tt3 dumps.

Question 1:

Which role in service portfolio management determines and delivers the services that provide value and strategic advantage to the provider?

A. Cloud Service Account Manager

B. Cloud Automation Engineer

C. Cloud Administrator

D. Cloud Auditor

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which management process ensures business continuity by eliminating single points of failure in a data center?

A. Availability management

B. Security management

C. Capacity management

D. Performance management

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which Dell EMC product is used for a disk-based backup and recovery solution that provides inherent source-based data deduplication?

A. NetWorker

B. ProtectPoint

C. Data Domain

D. Avamar

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Which phase of the cloud service lifecycle involves making business use case decisions for the cloud service offering portfolio?

A. Service Termination

B. Service Planning

C. Service Creation

D. Service Operation

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Which software-defined storage controller function gathers data about the components and brings them under its control and management?

A. Storage provisioning

B. Storage discovery

C. Resource abstraction and pooling

D. Storage component management

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

The incident management team is unable to determine the root cause of an incident. To which team should the error-correction activity be transferred?

A. Performance Management

B. Change Management

C. Availability Management

D. Problem Management

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

What mechanism does RSA SecurID use?

A. Single sign-on authentication

B. Policy-based authorization

C. Multi-factor authentication

D. Role-based authorization

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

What capability does an orchestration workflow provide?

A. Helps administer the cloud infrastructure, such as adding resources to a resource pool, billing, and reporting

B. Helps to consolidate all the IT resources in the cloud environment

C. Enables the administrator to control the underlying physical infrastructure using a single unified management console

D. Creates an automated set of tasks to update the service catalog by cloud consumers without requiring manual intervention

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

What is a characteristic of thin LUNs?

A. When a thin LUN is destroyed, its allocated capacity is automatically reclaimed to the pool.

B. When a thin LUN is created, physical storage is fully allocated for it

C. Once a thin LUN is created it cannot be destroyed until all data is deleted from it

D. When a thin LUN is destroyed, its allocated capacity is reserved until an administrator reclaims it

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Which product provides key management and a data-at-rest encryption mechanism for private, public, and hybrid clouds?

A. RSA SecurID

B. Dell EMC CloudArray

C. RSA Archer eGRC

D. Dell EMC CloudLink

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

What is a key benefit of using containers?

A. Eliminates any long-term commitments to a technology stack

B. Helps speed up software release cycles and improve software quality

C. Enables services to be delivered in hour or days, not weeks

D. Provides better probability without requiring code changes

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Which method optimizes network performance by distributing network traffic across the shared bandwidth of all the ISLs?

A. Link aggregation

B. Network zoning

C. Network segmentation

D. Link failover

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Which cloud service model is represented in the exhibit?

A. Software as a Service

B. Infrastructure as a Service

C. Platform as a Service

D. Database as a Service

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Which task describes adherence to compliance?

A. Ensure security policies are being enforced

B. Define access rights to users

C. Assess the cloud provider\’s capability to provide logs

D. Assess assets with realistic valuations

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

What is a function of service portfolio management?

A. Ensure compliance to industry standards

B. Enable capacity and availability management

C. Perform market research and collect information about competitors

D. Collect information about cloud services and their constituent elements

Correct Answer: B


Free Download the Most Update CAP Brain Dumps

Tens of thousands of competitors, pages of hard questions and unsatisfied exam preparation situations… Do not worried about all those annoying things! We, help you with your ISC Certification Latest CAP QAs CAP – Certified Authorization Professional exam. We will assist you clear the May 26,2022 Latest CAP pdf dumps exam with ISC Certification CAP vce. We CAP actual tests are the most comprehensive ones.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest CAP preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the CAP free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our CAP dumps.Real questions from CAP free dumps. Download demo of CAP dumps to check the validity.

Question 1:

Which of the following classification levels defines the information that, if disclosed to the unauthorized parties, could be reasonably expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to the national security?

A. Secret information

B. Top Secret information

C. Confidential information

D. Unclassified information

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

What approach can a project manager use to improve the project\’s performance during qualitative risk analysis?

A. Create a risk breakdown structure and delegate the risk analysis to the appropriate project team members.

B. Focus on high-priority risks.

C. Focus on near-term risks first.

D. Analyze as many risks as possible regardless of who initiated the risk event.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation


Question 3:

Which of the following system security policies is used to address specific issues of concern to the organization?

A. Program policy

B. Issue-specific policy

C. Informative policy

D. System-specific policy

Correct Answer: B

Explanation


Question 4:

Which of the following documents is used to provide a standard approach to the assessment of NIST SP 800-53 security controls?

A. NIST SP 800-53A

B. NIST SP 800-66

C. NIST SP 800-41

D. NIST SP 800-37

Correct Answer: A

Explanation


Question 5:

Tom is the project manager for his organization. In his project he has recently finished the risk response planning. He tells his manager that he will now need to update the cost and schedule baselines.

Why would the risk response planning cause Tom the need to update the cost and schedule baselines?

A. New or omitted work as part of a risk response can cause changes to the cost and/or schedule baseline.

B. Risk responses protect the time and investment of the project.

C. Risk responses may take time and money to implement.

D. Baselines should not be updated, but refined through versions.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation


Question 6:

Fill in the blank with an appropriate word.

________ ensures that the information is not disclosed to unauthorized persons or processes.

Correct Answer: Confidentiality

Explanation


H13-811 the Most Up to Date VCE And PDF Instant Download

How to pass Hotest H13-811 QAs exam easily with less time? We provides the most valid H13-811 vce to boost your success rate in Huawei Other Certification May 25,2022 Latest H13-811 QAs HCNA Cloud Service exam. If you are one of the successful candidates with We H13-811 actual tests, do not hesitate to share your reviews on our Huawei Other Certification materials.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest H13-811 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the H13-811 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our H13-811 dumps.Real questions from H13-811 free dumps. Download demo of H13-811 dumps to check the validity.

Question 1:

Traditional IT infrastructure architecture is already unable to support efficient enterprise operations. Which of the following is not a key cause?

A. High TCO

B. Slow network rates

C. Slow service rollout and complex lifecycle management

D. I/O bottlenecks restricting application performance

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which of the following statements about public clouds is false?

A. A public cloud can have a large number of users

B. Public clouds can optimize resources at scale

C. An enterprise uses their in-house infrastructure to build up a public cloud, which provides internal IT services for the enterprise

D. Public clouds are accessible over the Internet

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

The Identify and Access Management (IAM) service is enabled by default and is free of charge.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/IAM/latest/UserGuide/introduction.html


Question 4:

Which of the following statements about ECSs are true? (Choose all that apply.)

A. You can view ECS resources on the console

B. You can create and delete ECSs, reinstall and change OSs, and start or stop ECSs

C. You can use public images, private images, or shared images to apply for ECSs

D. You can add and remove extension NICs, add EIPs, attach and detach disks, and create key pairs

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://support.huawei.com/enterprise/en/doc/EDOC1100062374/40601e95/what-is-imagemanagement-service


Question 5:

ECSs in different AZs of the same region cannot access each other.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://support.huawei.com/enterprise/en/doc/EDOC1100062377/4f5ef30/region-and-az


Question 6:

You cannot deploy applications on ECSs in a manner similar to that on traditional physical servers.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

If the capacity of the data disk attached to an ECS is insufficient, the user must detach the disk and buy an EVS disk with a larger capacity.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://support.huawei.com/enterprise/en/doc/EDOC1100062382/63985099/managing-huaweicloud-evs-disks


Question 8:

Which of the following may result in failure to enable an AS policy? (Choose all that apply.)

A. No alarm policy is configured

B. The trigger time of the scheduled policy has expired

C. The system is abnormal

D. The effective time of the periodic policy has expired

Correct Answer: AD


Question 9:

Which of the following is auto scaling not recommended for? (Choose all that apply.)

A. ECSs with data logs

B. ECSs with application sessions

C. ECSs with database applications

D. ECSs with static web pages

Correct Answer: AB


Question 10:

After an AS group is deleted, ECS instances automatically created by AS will also be deleted.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://support.huaweicloud.com/intl/en-us/as_faq/faq_440.html


Question 11:

Which of the following policies is suitable for increasing the number of instances in an AS group at a fixed time each week?

A. Alarm

B. Scheduled

C. Periodic

D. All of above

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://support.huawei.com/enterprise/en/doc/EDOC1100062374/71864455/as-group


Question 12:

What operations can a shared image provider perform? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Add tenants who can use a shared image

B. Share a specified image

C. Remove tenants who can use a shared image

D. Delete a shared image

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://support.huawei.com/enterprise/en/doc/EDOC1100062374/40601e95/what-is-imagemanagement-service


Question 13:

If Cloudbase-Init is not installed for a private image, you will not be able to inject custom information into a Windows ECS created from this image. As a result, you can only use the password specified in this image to log in to the ECS.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://support.huawei.com/enterprise/en/doc/EDOC1100062377/4b42c508/creating-awindows-private-image-using-an-ecs


Question 14:

Which of the following is a standard image type provided on the public cloud platform and available to all users?

A. Public image

B. Private image

C. Shared image

D. Marketplace image

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://support.huawei.com/enterprise/en/doc/EDOC1100062374/40601e95/what-is-imagemanagement-service


Question 15:

Which of the following statements about the relationship between BMS and other cloud services is false?

A. After you apply for a BMS, you can install the Agent plug-in on it and complete mandatory settings. You can view BMS metrics in Cloud Eye

B. BMSs can be physically isolated without being deployed in a dedicated computing cluster

C. Images can be used to create BMSs, which improves the efficiency of BMS deployment

D. EVS disks can be attached to a BMS and the disk capacity can be expanded on demand

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.huaweicloud.com/en-us/product/dcc.html


[PDF and VCE] Free HPE6-A80 PDF Real Exam Questions and Answers Free Download

We ensures to provide the most update {keywords} with the most accurate answers. We Aruba Certified Design Expert (ACDX) HPE6-A80 vce are the most complete and authoritative HPE6-A80 dumps with which one can pass the Aruba Certified Design Expert (ACDX) May 24,2022 Hotest HPE6-A80 vce exam in an easy way. Preparing for Aruba Certified Design Expert (ACDX) Latest HPE6-A80 QAs Aruba Certified Design Expert Written exam is really a tough task to accomplish. But We will simplified the process.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest HPE6-A80 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the HPE6-A80 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our HPE6-A80 dumps.Do you what to see some samples before HPE6-A80 exam? Check the following HPE6-A80 free dumps or download HPE6-A80 dumps here.

Question 1:

Match each hospital room with a potential issue for the AP design (Each match will be used once.)

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 2:

A retailer wants to add a wireless network to its stores to provide guest access. The store has wired POS systems which the customer will now replace with wireless systems. What is one Important security action that the wireless solution supports to comply with PCI DSS?

A. Use test-practice, factory default settings for security settings and login credentials.

B. Implement TKIP encryption on the wireless network used by POS devices.

C. Impose mandatory clean up periods to delete records of user access to controllers

D. Enforce role-based access control on administrators who access controllers

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

The network architect has created the 60M shown in the exhibit tor a complete new wired ana wireless solution for a customer. This solution the customer wants to discover and manage every component or the network in Airwave, including twins, MCS, APS, and switches.

How many AirWave licenses dees the architect need to add?

A. 30

B. 222

C. 7122

D. 6930

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit shows the design for an existing network. The customer intends to replace the current Core switches with two Aruba 8400 switches.

What are two points that the architect should ensure that the customer understands? (Select two.)

A. The 8400 switches do not support VSF.

B. The 8400 switches cannot be monitored by AirWave.

C. The 8400 switches run different software than the 5400R switches.

D. The 8400 switches have a smaller ARP table than the 540OR switches.

E. The 8400 switches are fixed port switches.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 5:

A mall requires a wireless network upgrade to 802 -Max The company that owns the mall wants to provide the APs for the entire mall. However, several of the larger national chain retailers with spaces in the mall want to offer wireless services with their own SSIDs. These individual retailers also have their own wireless guest services and wireless client devices They have their own corporate infrastructure and want to handle all of this wireless traffic on their own, including terminating the traffic on their own controllers. The mall requires redundancy for its services, out the retailers do not.

Which plan for mobility controllers (MCs) and mobility master (MW) meets the needs of this scenario?

A. a pair of MMs for the mall company, but not MCs: MMs control one MC for each retailer with its own SSIDs

B. two MCs for the mall company and for all of the retailers, both controlled by the same pair of MMs

C. two MCs for the mail company controlled by a pair of MMS; one standalone MC for each retailer with its own SSIDS

D. two MCs for the mall company and one MC for each retailer with its own SSIDs, all controlled by the same pair of MMs

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

A customer has an Aruba wireless network. which includes two MC 7205s and an MM at the network core. The company now wants to accommodate 50 mobile trainers These trainers travel around the world and run training events. The

trainers often need to access materials in the company data center, but cannot reach materials when they are on the road.

The company wants to give the mobile workforce a secure way to reach the materials they need no matter where they are.

Including in public spaces like the hotels where they often leach. The customer also requires that the solution be as cost effective as possible while meeting the requirements.

Which plan meets the needs of the mobile Trainers?

A. Add 50 RAPs: add 50 Enterprise licenses to the MM, and add two 7005 MCs in the DMZ.

B. Add 50 RAPs; add 50 Enterprise licenses and 50 VIA licenses to the MM

C. Add so PEFV licenses to the MM. and add an additional 7205 MC to the core.

D. Add 50 VIA licenses to the MM, and deploy two 7005 MCs in the DMZ.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

This warehouse has the dimensions shown in the exhibit. The warehouse is 20 feet (6 m) high up to a steel railing on the

celling. The shelves are about 16 feet (5m) high, and they hold large containers filled with fluid and metal equipment.

The customer needs consistent wireless coverage throughout the warehouse, mostly to support the tablets that

employees use to run Inventory tracking and other applications. The warehouse staff works in shifts of 20.

The architect has selected AP-515S. About how many APs should the architect propose?

A. about 13-16

B. about 23-32

C. about 6-8

D. about 6-4

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit.

A customer needs to create a proposal for a full wireless solution for a customer The customer has indicated that the MCs will connect to Aruanda CX Switches at the core and the APs will connect to PoE-i- switches at the edge. The customer requires that the wireless solution support at least 50 Mbps concurrently per AP. The architect has created a BOM tor a Mobility Master (MM), two MC 721os, and 400 AP-535S. me exhibit snows this BOM.

Which components has the architect forgotten?

A. SFP transceivers tor the MC connections

B. Smart Rate PoE injectors for the APs

C. Mounting Kits tor the MOs and MM

D. Sufficient Enterprise licenses for the APs on both MCs

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

An archinect needs lo plan a Mobility Master (MM) solution for a customer Requirements include:

*

redundancy for the MM

*

redundancy for the MCS (seamless failover if up to one fails)

The wireless network consists of

*

total APs – 300

*

total wireless devices = 20,000

*

total MCs = 10

The customer wants the most cost-effective plan that meets me requirements.

Which plan for MMs should the architect select?

A.

1 MM-HW-5K and 1 MM-VA-1K

B.

2 MM-HW-5K

C.

1 MM-HW-5K and 1 MM-HW-1K

D.

2 MM-HW-1QK

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Referto the exhibit.

A hospital needs an upgrade to 802.1tax for its wireless network. The wireless network supports:

*

wireless medical devices

*

medical staff voice communicators

*

laptops in nurse stations

*

medical staff tablets

*

visitor and patient personal devices.

All of these devices support both the 2 4GHz and 5GH2 band. Assuming about a max throughput on50 Mbps per AP; the hospital would like. The architect has used VisualRF to plan the AP placement on one of the floors, which the hospital

expects will need to suppod about 800 win

to deploy APS in stairwells between floors.

How well does the plan meet the requirements?

A. The current AP placement meets coverage requirements, but does not meet capacity requirements.

B. The current AP placement meets the customer requirements in terms of coverage and capacity.

C. The current AP placement fails to account for the lead-lined wails that are common in patient and exam rooms.

D. The current AP placement fails to provide adequate signal for the voice communicators in several areas

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

What is one customer requirement that can drive the need for a relatively dense AP deployment. In which ire coverage areas of at least three AP radios overlap?

A. AP operation as hybrid AMs for IDS/WIPS

B. the deployment of dual SGHz radio APs

C. support for beacon management

D. location tracking of wireless loT devices

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

A customer has an existing network with ArubaOS switches, Aruba 7205 controller, and 802.11ac APs. The customer needs a wired upgrade for their campus network and wireless upgrade with 802,11ax APs and would like to get all the

functions of AP.

The customer has one building with 3 floors with the following wired devices,

*

8 printers

*

security cameras

The architect plans to propose 75 AP-535s.

The security cameras are a high definition pan-tilt-zoom with heaters for harsh environments that require more than 45 W to function,

Which exhibit shows an access switch mat meets the customer needs?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Correct Answer: D

*

200 VOIP phones


Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

A customer needs a wireless network upgrade and has these requirements.

Support any applications used on a wired connection

Support up to 2500 wireless clients

Support seamless roaming from floor to floor and building to building

Continue to function seamlessly if one controller fails The architect has designed the logical infrastructure for the network as shown in the exhibit Which change should the architect make to belter meet customer requirements and besl practices?

A.

Combine me /25 subnets for wireless and wired users into a /16 subnet.

B.

Install additional Mobility Controller.

C.

Combine the /25 subnets for wireless users into a /20 subnet

D.

Place each controller in a different VLAN and subnet.

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

A company already has an Aruba wireless network The network currently consists of: * oneMM-HW-1k

*

two 7210 MCs in the network core

*

two 721GMCsintheDMZ

*

200 AP-515S in Building 1 and Building 5

100 AP-515S each In Building 2r Building 3, and Building 4

The customer now wants to assess if it needs local Mobility controllers (MC) for any buildings:

– Building 1 is the main office building for the campus. It supports the highest number of APs. It connects to the network core without an aggregation layer.

*

Building 2 is further away from the Building i. and no roaming is provided between it and the other buildings its access layer connects to the network cone with a pair of Aruba CX 6300M aggregation switches.

*

Building 3 is further away from the other buildings, it connects to the network core without an aggregation layer.

The Guest SSID traffic should be tunnelled to the DMZ controllers

\’ Building 4 has its own local datacenter and Internet connection. The company would like it to be able to operate completely autonomously if its aggregation layer loses connectivity with the core.

*

Building 5 is further away from the other buildings, it connects to the network core without an aggregation layer.

This building has been assigned to a partner that would like to manage a dedicated SS1D using the shared AP infrastructure.

In which two buildings should the network architect plan local mobility controllers (MCs)? (Select two)

A.

Building 1

B.

Building 4

C.

Building 5

D.

Building 3

E.

Building 2

Correct Answer: AD


Question 15:

For which scenario do Aruba CX 6300M Series switches meet the needs for an upgrade of the wired access layer while the Aruba CX 630QF Series switches do not?

A. The customer wants to utilize the Aruba AP-515 support for 002 3bz connectivity.

B. The customer wants to utilize LACP on AP515 in VSF switch configuration.

C. The Aruba CX6300M supports 10GBase-T connectivity with AP-515.

D. The Aruba CX 630DM support up to 75W PoE per port

Correct Answer: D


Free Download the Most Update DBS-C01 Brain Dumps

Tens of thousands of competitors, pages of hard questions and unsatisfied exam preparation situations… Do not worried about all those annoying things! We, help you with your AWS Certified Specialty May 23,2022 Newest DBS-C01 exam questions AWS Certified Database – Specialty (DBS-C01) exam. We will assist you clear the Newest DBS-C01 vce dumps exam with AWS Certified Specialty DBS-C01 actual tests. We DBS-C01 pdf are the most comprehensive ones.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest DBS-C01 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the DBS-C01 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our DBS-C01 dumps.DBS-C01 free dumps are questions from the latest full DBS-C01 dumps. Check DBS-C01 free questions to get a better understanding of DBS-C01 exams.

Question 1:

A company has deployed an e-commerce web application in a new AWS account. An Amazon RDS for MySQL Multi-AZ DB instance is part of this deployment with a database-1.xxxxxxxxxxxx.us-east1.rds.amazonaws.com endpoint listening on port 3306. The company\’s Database Specialist is able to log in to MySQL and run queries from the bastion host using these details.

When users try to utilize the application hosted in the AWS account, they are presented with a generic error message. The application servers are logging a “could not connect to server: Connection times out” error message to Amazon CloudWatch Logs.

What is the cause of this error?

A. The user name and password the application is using are incorrect.

B. The security group assigned to the application servers does not have the necessary rules to allow inbound connections from the DB instance.

C. The security group assigned to the DB instance does not have the necessary rules to allow inbound connections from the application servers.

D. The user name and password are correct, but the user is not authorized to use the DB instance.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://forums.aws.amazon.com/thread.jspa?threadID=129700


Question 2:

An AWS CloudFormation stack that included an Amazon RDS DB instance was accidentally deleted and recent data was lost. A Database Specialist needs to add RDS settings to the CloudFormation template to reduce the chance of accidental instance data loss in the future.

Which settings will meet this requirement? (Choose three.)

A. Set DeletionProtection to True

B. Set MultiAZ to True

C. Set TerminationProtection to True

D. Set DeleteAutomatedBackups to False

E. Set DeletionPolicy to Delete

F. Set DeletionPolicy to Retain

Correct Answer: ACF

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSCloudFormation/latest/UserGuide/aws-attributedeletionpolicy.html https://aws.amazon.com/premiumsupport/knowledge-center/cloudformation-accidental-updates/


Question 3:

A Database Specialist is troubleshooting an application connection failure on an Amazon Aurora DB cluster with multiple Aurora Replicas that had been running with no issues for the past 2 months. The connection failure lasted for 5 minutes and corrected itself after that. The Database Specialist reviewed the Amazon RDS events and determined a failover event occurred at that time. The failover process took around 15 seconds to complete.

What is the MOST likely cause of the 5-minute connection outage?

A. After a database crash, Aurora needed to replay the redo log from the last database checkpoint

B. The client-side application is caching the DNS data and its TTL is set too high

C. After failover, the Aurora DB cluster needs time to warm up before accepting client connections

D. There were no active Aurora Replicas in the Aurora DB cluster

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

A company is deploying a solution in Amazon Aurora by migrating from an on-premises system. The IT department has established an AWS Direct Connect link from the company\’s data center. The company\’s Database Specialist has selected the option to require SSL/TLS for connectivity to prevent plaintext data from being set over the network. The migration appears to be working successfully, and the data can be queried from a desktop machine.

Two Data Analysts have been asked to query and validate the data in the new Aurora DB cluster. Both Analysts are unable to connect to Aurora. Their user names and passwords have been verified as valid and the Database Specialist can connect to the DB cluster using their accounts. The Database Specialist also verified that the security group configuration allows network from all corporate IP addresses.

What should the Database Specialist do to correct the Data Analysts’ inability to connect?

A. Restart the DB cluster to apply the SSL change.

B. Instruct the Data Analysts to download the root certificate and use the SSL certificate on the connection string to connect.

C. Add explicit mappings between the Data Analysts’ IP addresses and the instance in the security group assigned to the DB cluster.

D. Modify the Data Analysts’ local client firewall to allow network traffic to AWS.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

A company is concerned about the cost of a large-scale, transactional application using Amazon DynamoDB that only needs to store data for 2 days before it is deleted. In looking at the tables, a Database Specialist notices that much of the data is months old, and goes back to when the application was first deployed.

What can the Database Specialist do to reduce the overall cost?

A. Create a new attribute in each table to track the expiration time and create an AWS Glue transformation to delete entries more than 2 days old.

B. Create a new attribute in each table to track the expiration time and enable DynamoDB Streams on each table.

C. Create a new attribute in each table to track the expiration time and enable time to live (TTL) on each table.

D. Create an Amazon CloudWatch Events event to export the data to Amazon S3 daily using AWS Data Pipeline and then truncate the Amazon DynamoDB table.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

A company has an on-premises system that tracks various database operations that occur over the lifetime of a database, including database shutdown, deletion, creation, and backup.

The company recently moved two databases to Amazon RDS and is looking at a solution that would satisfy these requirements. The data could be used by other systems within the company.

Which solution will meet these requirements with minimal effort?

A. Create an Amazon Cloudwatch Events rule with the operations that need to be tracked on Amazon RDS. Create an AWS Lambda function to act on these rules and write the output to the tracking systems.

B. Create an AWS Lambda function to trigger on AWS CloudTrail API calls. Filter on specific RDS API calls and write the output to the tracking systems.

C. Create RDS event subscriptions. Have the tracking systems subscribe to specific RDS event system notifications.

D. Write RDS logs to Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose. Create an AWS Lambda function to act on these rules and write the output to the tracking systems.

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

A clothing company uses a custom ecommerce application and a PostgreSQL database to sell clothes to thousands of users from multiple countries. The company is migrating its application and database from its on-premises data center to the AWS Cloud. The company has selected Amazon EC2 for the application and Amazon RDS for PostgreSQL for the database. The company requires database passwords to be changed every 60 days. A Database Specialist needs to ensure that the credentials used by the web application to connect to the database are managed securely.

Which approach should the Database Specialist take to securely manage the database credentials?

A. Store the credentials in a text file in an Amazon S3 bucket. Restrict permissions on the bucket to the IAM role associated with the instance profile only. Modify the application to download the text file and retrieve the credentials on start up. Update the text file every 60 days.

B. Configure IAM database authentication for the application to connect to the database. Create an IAM user and map it to a separate database user for each ecommerce user. Require users to update their passwords every 60 days.

C. Store the credentials in AWS Secrets Manager. Restrict permissions on the secret to only the IAM role associated with the instance profile. Modify the application to retrieve the credentials from Secrets Manager on start up. Configure the rotation interval to 60 days.

D. Store the credentials in an encrypted text file in the application AMI. Use AWS KMS to store the key for decrypting the text file. Modify the application to decrypt the text file and retrieve the credentials on start up. Update the text file and publish a new AMI every 60 days.

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

A financial services company is developing a shared data service that supports different applications from throughout the company. A Database Specialist designed a solution to leverage Amazon ElastiCache for Redis with cluster mode enabled to enhance performance and scalability. The cluster is configured to listen on port 6379.

Which combination of steps should the Database Specialist take to secure the cache data and protect it from unauthorized access? (Choose three.)

A. Enable in-transit and at-rest encryption on the ElastiCache cluster.

B. Ensure that Amazon CloudWatch metrics are configured in the ElastiCache cluster.

C. Ensure the security group for the ElastiCache cluster allows all inbound traffic from itself and inbound traffic on TCP port 6379 from trusted clients only.

D. Create an IAM policy to allow the application service roles to access all ElastiCache API actions.

E. Ensure the security group for the ElastiCache clients authorize inbound TCP port 6379 and port 22 traffic from the trusted ElastiCache cluster\’s security group.

F. Ensure the cluster is created with the auth-token parameter and that the parameter is used in all subsequent commands.

Correct Answer: ABE

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/getting-started/tutorials/setting-up-a-redis-cluster-with-amazonelasticache/


Question 9:

A company is running an Amazon RDS for PostgeSQL DB instance and wants to migrate it to an Amazon Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster. The current database is 1 TB in size. The migration needs to have minimal downtime.

What is the FASTEST way to accomplish this?

A. Create an Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster. Set up replication from the source RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance using AWS DMS to the target DB cluster.

B. Use the pg_dump and pg_restore utilities to extract and restore the RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance to the Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster.

C. Create a database snapshot of the RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance and use this snapshot to create the Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster.

D. Migrate data from the RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance to an Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster using an Aurora Replica. Promote the replica during the cutover.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

A Database Specialist is migrating a 2 TB Amazon RDS for Oracle DB instance to an RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance using AWS DMS. The source RDS Oracle DB instance is in a VPC in the us-east-1 Region. The target RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance is in a VPC in the use-west-2 Region.

Where should the AWS DMS replication instance be placed for the MOST optimal performance?

A. In the same Region and VPC of the source DB instance

B. In the same Region and VPC as the target DB instance

C. In the same VPC and Availability Zone as the target DB instance

D. In the same VPC and Availability Zone as the source DB instance

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

The Development team recently executed a database script containing several data definition language (DDL) and data manipulation language (DML) statements on an Amazon Aurora MySQL DB cluster. The release accidentally deleted thousands of rows from an important table and broke some application functionality. This was discovered 4 hours after the release. Upon investigation, a Database Specialist tracked the issue to a DELETE command in the script with an incorrect WHERE clause filtering the wrong set of rows. The Aurora DB cluster has Backtrack enabled with an 8-hour backtrack window. The Database Administrator also took a manual snapshot of the DB cluster before the release started. The database needs to be returned to the correct state as quickly as possible to resume full application functionality. Data loss must be minimal. How can the Database Specialist accomplish this?

A. Quickly rewind the DB cluster to a point in time before the release using Backtrack.

B. Perform a point-in-time recovery (PITR) of the DB cluster to a time before the release and copy the deleted rows from the restored database to the original database.

C. Restore the DB cluster using the manual backup snapshot created before the release and change the application configuration settings to point to the new DB cluster.

D. Create a clone of the DB cluster with Backtrack enabled. Rewind the cloned cluster to a point in time before the release. Copy deleted rows from the clone to the original database.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

A company is load testing its three-tier production web application deployed with an AWS CloudFormation template on AWS. The Application team is making changes to deploy additional Amazon EC2 and AWS Lambda resources to expand the load testing capacity. A Database Specialist wants to ensure that the changes made by the Application team will not change the Amazon RDS database resources already deployed. Which combination of steps would allow the Database Specialist to accomplish this? (Choose two.)

A. Review the stack drift before modifying the template

B. Create and review a change set before applying it

C. Export the database resources as stack outputs

D. Define the database resources in a nested stack

E. Set a stack policy for the database resources

Correct Answer: AD


Question 13:

A manufacturing company\’s website uses an Amazon Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster.

Which configurations will result in the LEAST application downtime during a failover? (Choose three.)

A. Use the provided read and write Aurora endpoints to establish a connection to the Aurora DB cluster.

B. Create an Amazon CloudWatch alert triggering a restore in another Availability Zone when the primary Aurora DB cluster is unreachable.

C. Edit and enable Aurora DB cluster cache management in parameter groups.

D. Set TCP keepalive parameters to a high value.

E. Set JDBC connection string timeout variables to a low value.

F. Set Java DNS caching timeouts to a high value.

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 14:

A company is hosting critical business data in an Amazon Redshift cluster. Due to the sensitive nature of the data, the cluster is encrypted at rest using AWS KMS. As a part of disaster recovery requirements, the company needs to copy the Amazon Redshift snapshots to another Region.

Which steps should be taken in the AWS Management Console to meet the disaster recovery requirements?

A. Create a new KMS customer master key in the source Region. Switch to the destination Region, enable Amazon Redshift cross-Region snapshots, and use the KMS key of the source Region.

B. Create a new IAM role with access to the KMS key. Enable Amazon Redshift cross-Region replication using the new IAM role, and use the KMS key of the source Region.

C. Enable Amazon Redshift cross-Region snapshots in the source Region, and create a snapshot copy grant and use a KMS key in the destination Region.

D. Create a new KMS customer master key in the destination Region and create a new IAM role with access to the new KMS key. Enable Amazon Redshift cross-Region replication in the source Region and use the KMS key of the destination Region.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/redshift/latest/mgmt/working-with-snapshots.html


Question 15:

A company has a production Amazon Aurora Db cluster that serves both online transaction processing (OLTP) transactions and compute-intensive reports. The reports run for 10% of the total cluster uptime while the OLTP transactions run all the time. The company has benchmarked its workload and determined that a six-node Aurora DB cluster is appropriate for the peak workload. The company is now looking at cutting costs for this DB cluster, but needs to have a sufficient number of nodes in the cluster to support the workload at different times. The workload has not changed since the previous benchmarking exercise. How can a Database Specialist address these requirements with minimal user involvement?

A. Split up the DB cluster into two different clusters: one for OLTP and the other for reporting. Monitor and set up replication between the two clusters to keep data consistent.

B. Review all evaluate the peak combined workload. Ensure that utilization of the DB cluster node is at an acceptable level. Adjust the number of instances, if necessary.

C. Use the stop cluster functionality to stop all the nodes of the DB cluster during times of minimal workload. The cluster can be restarted again depending on the workload at the time.

D. Set up automatic scaling on the DB cluster. This will allow the number of reader nodes to adjust automatically to the reporting workload, when needed.

Correct Answer: D


[Newest Version] Free jn0-1361 PDF and Exam Questions Download 100% Pass Exam

Attention please! Here is the shortcut to pass your Newest jn0-1361 study guide exam! Get yourself well prepared for the Juniper Other Certification May 23,2022 Hotest jn0-1361 vce dumps Service Provider Design Specialist (JNCDS-SP) exam is really a hard job. But don’t worry! We We, provides the most update jn0-1361 exam questions. With We latest jn0-1361 dumps, you’ll pass the Juniper Other Certification Hotest jn0-1361 practice Service Provider Design Specialist (JNCDS-SP) exam in an easy way

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest jn0-1361 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the jn0-1361 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our jn0-1361 dumps.The following questions and answers are from the latest jn0-1361 free dumps. It will help you understand the validity of the latest jn0-1361 dumps.

Question 1:

Exhibit:

You work for service provider B that wants to implement a hot potato routing policy on the network so that router C uses link C-A to reach service provider A\’s advertised routes and router D uses link D- B to reach Service Provider A\’s advertised routes Currently traffic from router C is traversing the core to exit the network on router B . Referring to the exhibit, what are two design actions that would satisfy the requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Implement BGP-ORR

B. Configure new IBGP neighbors between routers C and A and routers D and B

C. Implement BGP-LS

D. Configure the route reflector to send multiple copies of a route learned from different IBGP peers to its clients.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 2:

Your company is designing a new data center in a remote location that must be connected to your local data center. You have a service provider connection between the CE devices at each site. You want to implement EVPN with VXLAN services between sites, but the service provider does not offer EVPN services. Which two statements are true in this scenario? (Choose two )

A. The provider\’s edge devices must map your VXLAN VNIs to MPLS LSPs within the provider network at each site

B. The customer\’s edge devices within your data center can act as VXLAN Layer 2 gateways

C. You can still implement EVPN service across the service provider as long as there is IP reachability between the sites.

D. The service provider must provide an MPLS-based VPN connection between sites

Correct Answer: BC


Question 3:

Exhibit: Which routing protocol design will accomplish these goals?

A. Enable a full mesh of IBGP sessions between the routers in ISP B.

B. Redistribute the BGP routes learned from ISP A into the OSPF instance running in ISP B.

C. Configure static routes to ISP A on each router within ISP B.

D. Configure each router in ISP B to peer with a par of route reflectors.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Your applications are migrating from a legacy data center to an EVPN over a VXLAN-based VM environment. A few critical legacy applications not support this environment and must remain on bare metal servers and the applications must be able to access the Internet. What must be included in the VXLAN design to satisfy these requirements?

A. VTEP tunneling

B. VXLAN gateway

C. SR-IOV

D. nested VM capability

Correct Answer: B

https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/releaseindependent/solutions/topics/concept/solutionevpn-vxlan-understanding.html


Question 5:

Which security implementation does Juniper Networks recommend for all core routers in a service provider network?

A. intrusion and detection prevention

B. unified threat management

C. application firewall

D. stateless loopback firewall filter

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Exhibit: You are asked to ensure that most traffic that traverses your network is load balanced over all of the equal cost links between the routers in your network. However, you must also ensure that traffic from ISP A that is destined for ISP D must traverse the R1-R2-R3-R4-R5 path. Referring to the exhibit how would you accomplish this task?

A. Force the ISP A to ISP D traffic over RSVP-signaled LSPs.

B. Adjust the BGFs LOCAL PREF attribute to ensure that the raw IP packets follow the required path.

C. Adjust the OSPF metrics of each link so that the raw IP packets follow the required path.

D. Force the ISP A to ISP D traffic over LDP-signaled LSPs.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Your customer\’s WAN edge connects to two service providers SP-A and SP-B. The customer is advertising a single /22 subnet to both service providers through EBGP peering sessions. The customer wants to influence inbound traffic to the advertised /22 destination prefix so that it passes through SP-A when both paths are operational. Which action meets the customer\’s requirement?

A. Advertise the prefix to SP-A with a lower MED value than that sent to SP-B.

B. Advertise the prefix to SP-B with an origin of unknown.

C. Advertise the prefix to SP-B with a lower MED value than that sent to SP-A.

D. Advertise the prefix to SP-A with an origin of unknown.

Correct Answer: A

https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos/topics/topic-map/med-attribute.html


Question 8:

Your customer\’s enterprise is adding geographically-dispersed branch offices and requires new WAN

connections. The primary design consideration for this expansion is low cost but the branches must remain

secure with low latency.

Which type of Internet access model satisfies the customer\’s requirement in this scenario?

A. distributed model with security at the hub

B. centralized model with security at the hub

C. centralized model with security at each branch

D. distributed model with security at each branch

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Which Juniper Networks platform automates the orchestration of compute, storage, and networking resources to create and manipulate OpenStack clouds?

A. NorthStar

B. Contrail

C. WANDL

D. RingMaster

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Your customer wants an MPLS-based L3VPN service between multiple remote locations. Which two statements are true regarding the customer\’s WAN edge devices? (Choose two )

A. They must have EBGP configured.

B. They require routes for all remote sites.

C. They must have MPLS configured.

D. They require IP connectivity with the PEs.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 11:

Your customer wants to use NorthStar to communicate with network devices and acquire the MPLS topology. Which protocol is recommended for this purpose?

A. PIM-SSM

B. OSPF

C. BGP-LS

D. ISIS

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

You are asked to design a DDoS prevention system to help mitigate denial-of-service attacks that target your customers. The management group wants to know the effect FlowSpec may have on current network operations if it is implemented as a solution. In this scenario which two statements are correct? (Choose two )

A. FlowSpec can block traffic based on stateful flow information.

B. FlowSpec can block traffic based on the source address.

C. FlowSpec requires Jflow implementation and licensing.

D. FlowSpec can block traffic based on the destination address.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 13:

Your customer is deploying a multi-tenant data center and needs help with the WAN edge design. What are two main design considerations for this environment? (Choose two)

A. support for Virtual Chassis Control Protocol

B. support for unified threat management

C. support for Network Address Translation

D. support for data collection and analysis

Correct Answer: CD


Question 14:

Your company is considering how to add more visibility in their WAN MPLS links. Which Juniper Networks product provides this type of traffic management?

A. Contrail

B. AppFormix

C. JSA Series

D. NorthStar

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

You have a service provider customer that wants to offer services in a new market. They need to have a

lower cost-of-entry broadcast network gateway.

Which product would satisfy this requirement?

A. vSRX with the appropriate licenses

B. vCPE with the appropriate licenses

C. uCPE with the appropriate licenses

D. vMX with the appropriate licenses

Correct Answer: D


New Updated AX0-100 Exam Dumps Free Download

Tens of thousands of competitors, pages of hard questions and unsatisfied exam preparation situations… Do not worried about all those annoying things! We, help you with your Axis Certified Professional May 18,2022 Newest AX0-100 study guide Axis Network Video Exam exam. We will assist you clear the Hotest AX0-100 pdf exam with Axis Certified Professional AX0-100 exam dumps. We AX0-100 actual tests are the most comprehensive ones.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest AX0-100 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the AX0-100 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our AX0-100 dumps.If you need to check sample questions of the AX0-100 free dumps, go through the Q and As from AX0-100 dumps below.

Question 1:

What is the main purpose of the Arctic Temperature Control functionality?

A. To protect the camera electronics

B. To protect the camera mechanics

C. To protect the camera lens

D. To protect the camera power

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which is a benefit of using VLANs and IP subnets?

A. An encrypted communication link is established over the internet, allowing surveillance video to be securely viewed off-site

B. The network provides end-to-end encryption to prevent malicious users from intercepting network traffic

C. The network will only allow access from authorized devices, eliminating the risk that malicious users disconnect cameras to intercept network traffic

D. Network surveillance video can be kept separate from other network traffic, reducing the risk that malicious users will intercept it

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

In many places 24 V AC has been popular as a power source but now 12 V and 24 V DC is increasing in popularity because

A. There is more energy in DC.

B. It is easier to back-up DC with battery.

C. There is less power loss in cables with DC.

D. There is less risk for surge with DC.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

When initiating a surveillance project with a customer, which of the following should be considered first?

A. Understand which camera models to use

B. Understand the customer\’s technical knowledge

C. Understand the customer\’s goals and requirements

D. Understand the legal aspects for the installation

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Which of the following are outdoor rated products? (Choose two)

A. AXIS M3114-R

B. AXIS P3304-VR

C. AXIS P1344-E

D. AXIS P3344-VE

E. AXIS M1031-W

Correct Answer: CD


Question 6:

Which of the following allows customer to access between 2-4 channels of live and online stored video at any time?

A. AXIS Camera Station

B. AXIS Video Hosting System (AVHS)

C. AXIS Camera Management

D. AXIS Media Control

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which setting would best adjust a hard yellow tint as shown in the pictures below?

A. Image contrast

B. White balance

C. Color saturation

D. Image brightness

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Which is an impact on cameras that are operating above their specified temperature limit?

A. Noise is increased

B. Frame rate is reduced

C. Light sensitivity is decreased

D. Resolution is reduced

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which technology can a Video Management Software (VMS) partner incorporate to reduce the impact on recorded video during server maintenance?

A. Local storage at the camera

B. Meta data stream

C. AXIS Camera Application Platform (ACAP)

D. SNMP

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

A customer has a lot of motion blur on recordings from a fixed camera. What would be the most likely setting to address the blurring?

A. Gain level

B. Brightness

C. Backlight compensation

D. Shutter speed

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Which statement is true regarding H.264 and Motion JPEG?

A. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at high frame rates

B. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only scene complexity

C. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only Group of Video (GOV) setting

D. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at low frame rates

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which of the following will allow a customer to have a PTZ camera automatically change between three predefined positions?

A. Configure the camera\’s I/O ports to control the preset positions

B. Use the Guard Tour capability to switch between the preset positions

C. Switch between the predefined positions using a joystick

D. Use the auto tracking capability to switch between the preset positions

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

With Axis Coverage Shapes, the designer can

A. See the effect of furniture or other objects blocking field of view.

B. View how varying lighting conditions affect the image.

C. Create a 3D view of the scene the camera will capture.

D. Determine at what distance a person can be identified.

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Which is true about P-iris?

A. The P-iris makes use of a novel p-shaped blade that reduces complexity and cost while maintaining image quality

B. In bright situations. P-iris limits the closing of the iris to avoid blurring caused by diffraction when the iris opening becomes too small

C. The P-iris delivers the optimal depth of field by always using the smallest possible aperture for the available lightning

D. The P-iris makes use of a novel p-shaped blade that allows the iris to react to rapidly changing lighting conditions

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

The Axis pixel counter allows a user to

A. Convert pixels to actual distances.

B. Verify that the resolution requirements for a scene are met.

C. Determine the file size for each video frame.

D. Specify different exposure zones in a scene.

Correct Answer: B


Free Providing 98-363 VCE Exam Study Guides With New Update Exam Questions

We ensures to provide the most update {keywords} with the most accurate answers. We Microsoft Developer 98-363 dumps are the most complete and authoritative latest 98-363 dumps with which one can pass the Microsoft Developer Newest 98-363 exam questions exam in an easy way. Preparing for Microsoft Developer May 16,2022 Hotest 98-363 pdf dumps Web Development Fundamentals exam is really a tough task to accomplish. But We will simplified the process.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 98-363 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the 98-363 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 98-363 dumps.Free sample questions of 98-363 free dumps are provided here. All the following questions are from the latest real 98-363 dumps.

Question 1:

What syntax should you use to pass variable a and variable b in a QueryString?

A. Response.Transfer(“Webpage.aspx?a=1 b=2”)

B. Response.Redirect(“Webpage.aspx?a=1andb=2”)

C. Response.Redirect(“Webpage.aspx?a:1andb:2”)

D. Response.Transfer(“Webpage.aspx?a:1 b:2”)

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

You need to prevent an exception from stopping code execution on a Web page. Which type of statement should you use?

A. “Try…Then”

B. “If…Then…Else”

C. “Do…While”

D. “Try…Catch”

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

You are deploying your website to a web server.

You need to store several custom values so that the application will run correctly when deployed.

Which section of the Web.config file should you use to store the settings?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

What should you use to save Web application state information on the client side?

A. session state

B. application state

C. cache

D. cookies

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

You create a session variable. What is its initial value?

A. -1

B. blank

C. 0

D. null

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

You need to ensure that a page named 404.aspx is displayed for every 404 error on a Web site.

What should you do?

A. Create a 404 error handler on the home page.

B. Add a 404 item to the section of web.config.

C. Create a 404 error handler on the master page.

D. Set a session variable to monitor 404 error status.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

A Web page has an control named ddlCountries.

You need to refresh the Web page whenever a user selects a new item in ddlCountries.

Which property should you set on ddlCountries?

A. AutoSubmit=”true”

B. AutoRefresh=”true”

C. AutoPostBack=”true”

D. AutoUpdate=”true”

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

You are deploying your website to a web server.

You need to store several custom values so that the application will run correctly when deployed.

Which section of the Web.config file should you use to store the settings?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

You have an XML file that contains information about students. The XML file structure resembles the following XML markup segment:

Instructions: Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement. Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 10:

You have the following webpage and property page:

Instructions: Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement. Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 11:

A web server includes two web applications named WebApp1 and WebApp2. The WebApp2 and SubPage2 folders each contain a Web.confic file. Each configuration file contains an authorization element. The configuration is shown below:

Instructions: Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement. Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 12:

You need to write code that checks to see if the webpage has been posted back to the web server.

In which webpage lifecycle event should you insert the code?

Instructions: To answer, select the appropriate page lifecycle event in the answer area.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 13:

You are working as an intern for a web-based magazine.

Your webpage has been returning unexpected results.

You need to find the source of the problem.

Instructions: For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 14:

You have the following webpage:

Instructions: Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement. Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 15:

You have an XML file that contains information about students. The XML file structure resembles the following XML markup segment:

Instructions: Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer: