Month: April 2022

[Latest Version] Easily Pass ns0-003 Exam With Updated ns0-003 Preparation Materials

Tens of thousands of competitors, pages of hard questions and unsatisfied exam preparation situations… Do not worried about all those annoying things! We, help you with your NCTA Hotest ns0-003 practice NetApp Certified Technology Associate exam. We will assist you clear the Apr 29,2022 Hotest ns0-003 free download exam with NCTA ns0-003 exam questions. We ns0-003 new questions are the most comprehensive ones.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest ns0-003 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the ns0-003 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our ns0-003 dumps.Free sample questions of ns0-003 free dumps are provided here. All the following questions are from the latest real ns0-003 dumps.

Question 1:

Regarding Quality of Service, what are three IOPS parameters in the NetApp Element software that are defined per volume? (Choose three.)

A. Standard IOPS

B. Extreme IOPS

C. Maximum IOPS

D. Minimum IOPS

E. Burst IOPS

Correct Answer: CDE

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/sfe-115/topic/com.netapp.doc.sfe-ug/GUID-A0C92EA6-37D8-44C4BF6B-464817D6CB0A.html


Question 2:

What provides dynamic storage orchestration services for Kubernetes workloads?

A. Ansible

B. SANtricity OS

C. Trident

D. ONTAP software

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://netapp.io/persistent-storage-provisioner-for-kubernetes/


Question 3:

Where would you create an export policy?

A. in a FlexVol volume

B. in a RAID group

C. in a Storage VM

D. in an aggregate

Correct Answer: C

Reference: http://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=/com.netapp.doc.pow-nfs-cg/GUID55EF7FD7-4904-404A-9D53-93ECFFB00B22.html


Question 4:

Which statement is correct about block and file data access?

A. With block data access, the host OS owns the file system; with file data access. ONTAP owns the file system

B. With block data access, ONTAP owns the file system; with file data access, the host OS owns the file system

C. With block and file data access, the host OS owns the file system

D. With block and file data access, ONTAP owns the file system

Correct Answer:


Question 5:

Your users require both NFS and SMB file services. You do not want to manage the storage ONTAP System Manager or the command line interface.

In this scenario, which two products would satisfy these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Amazon S3 Glacier

B. Azure Blob Storage

C. Azure NetApp Files

D. Cloud Volumes Service

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-netapp-files/azure-netapp-files-faqs https://www.netapp.com/knowledge-center/what-is-cloud-volumes/


Question 6:

You are using NetApp Cloud Volumes ONTAP for AWS. You need to have data protection for your cloud data.

What NetApp service would you use to satisfy your requirements?

A. Cloud Sync

B. Cloud Volumes Service for AWS

C. Cloud Backup

D. SaaS Backup

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.netapp.com/cloud-services/cloud-volumes-ontap/aws/


Question 7:

What are three types of data access? (Choose three.)

A. cloud

B. RAID

C. file

D. block

E. object

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 8:

Which two NetApp features encrypt the storage data? (Choose two.)

A. Trusted Platform Module (TPM)

B. Encrypted File System (EFS)

C. NetApp Volume Encryption

D. NetApp Storage Encryption

Correct Answer: CD


Question 9:

You have multiple on-premises applications writing to ONTAP LUNs and NFS exports. You want to build a disaster recovery solution from your on-premises ONTAP systems to your Microsoft Azure Resource Group while preserving the data efficiency and access properties for block and file.

Which cloud storage destination would you use in Microsoft Azure to accomplish this task?

A. Azure NetApp Files

B. NetApp Cloud Volumes ONTAP

C. Azure Blob Destination

D. NetApp Cloud Volumes Service

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-netapp-files/whats-new


Question 10:

You are asked to create and manage working environments in NetApp Cloud Manager. In this scenario, which user role would enable you to perform this assignment?

A. Cluster Admin

B. Compliance Viewer

C. Storage Admin

D. Account Admin

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/us-en/occm38/pdfs/sidebar/Get_started_with_Cloud_Manager.pdf (page 6)


Question 11:

Which cloud architecture model does Cloud Volumes Service have?

A. PaaS

B. DRaaS

C. SaaS

D. IaaS

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Which two protocols are supported with an E-Series system? (Choose two.)

A. iSCSI

B. NFS

C. FC

D. SMB

Correct Answer: AC


Question 13:

Your employer asks you to deploy a solution in the cloud for sharing files company-wide. Employees require optimal performance and transparent data access to a single set of data.

In this scenario, which NetApp technology should you deploy?

A. Global File Cache

B. ONTAP Select

C. StorageGRID

D. Cloud Sync service

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://cloud.netapp.com/global-file-cache


Question 14:

Which are three focus areas of NetApp E-Series solutions? (Choose three.)

A. video surveillance

B. backup

C. big data analytics

D. virtual desktop infrastructure

E. file shares using SMB

Correct Answer: ABC

Reference: https://www.netapp.com/data-storage/e-series/


Question 15:

Which two technologies are involved during a takeover event on an ONTAP cluster? (Choose two.)

A. Aggregate Relocation (ARL)

B. Advanced Disk Partitioning (ADP)

C. Storage VM (SVM)

D. Storage Failover (SFO)

Correct Answer: BC


[PDF and VCE] Free Share 72400X PDF Exam Preparation Materials with Real Exam Questions

Attention please! Here is the shortcut to pass your Hotest 72400X vce dumps exam! Get yourself well prepared for the ACSS-7240 Latest 72400X pdf dumps Avaya Equinox Solution with Avaya Aura Collaboration Applications Support exam is really a hard job. But don’t worry! We We, provides the most update 72400X vce. With We latest 72400X exam dumps, you’ll pass the ACSS-7240 Apr 27,2022 Hotest 72400X pdf dumps Avaya Equinox Solution with Avaya Aura Collaboration Applications Support exam in an easy way

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 72400X preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the 72400X free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 72400X dumps.Free sample questions of 72400X free dumps are provided here. All the following questions are from the latest real 72400X dumps.

Question 1:

In a Team Engagement Deployment, which Avaya Equinox?Conferencing component is responsible for mixing and distributing media?

A. H.323 Gatekeeper

B. Equinox User Portal

C. Equinox Management Server

D. Equinox Media Server

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/101045460 (131)


Question 2:

Consider an Avaya IXTM Workplace for Web Client connecting to a virtual meeting room from a public network.

Which two components within the call flow will be involved in the media path? (Choose two.)

A. Avaya Aura Media Server

B. Avaya Auta Web Gateway

C. Equinox Media Server

D. Session Manager

Correct Answer: BC


Question 3:

From Release R8.0.1, which statement regarding Multimedia Messaging is true?

A. It is installed on a Windows Server.

B. Its capability is provided by the Avaya Multimedia Messaging (AMM) Snap-In.

C. It is installed on a standalone Linux Server.

D. Its capability is provided by the Presence Services Snap-In.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

When troubleshooting an Avaya Equinox Conferencing solution issues related to access from the public network, debugging which component is recommended first?

A. Avaya Aura Web Gateway

B. Session Manager

C. Session Border Controller

D. Avaya Aura Communication Manager

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Which three call flow steps apply to Avaya IXTM Workplace Clients? (Choose three.)

A. Obtain Dynamic Configuration from SMGR.

B. Obtain Dynamic Configuration from AADS.

C. Register and exchange SIP signaling with ASM.

D. Exchange Instant Message/Multimedia Message information with Presence Services via HTTPS.

E. Register and uses SIP Signaling with Communication Manager.

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 6:

When saving a Customer Support Package on Equinox Management, which two options are available to select? (Choose two.)

A. Option to erase the captured files from the server after downloading

B. Capture logs for the last X minutes

C. Choice of a time period from which to capture logs

D. Option to schedule the Customer Support Package download

Correct Answer: AC


Question 7:

A user is trying to register on their Avaya IXTM Workplace Client (Windows/Mac/iOS/Android) from the Public Network.

Which ASBCE Network Interface is usually set to connect to the Public Network, and will be the first point of contact for the registration request from the Client\’s IP?

A. M2 Interface

B. M1 Interface

C. B1 Interface

D. A1 Interface

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/101064807 (157)


Question 8:

How can an incorrect ESMSRVR value in the AADS Dynamic Configuration affect Avaya IXTM Workplace Client (Windows) users?

A. Users will not be able to register on their Avaya IXTM Workplace Clients.

B. Users will not be able to access Multimedia Messaging service from their Avaya IXTM Workplace Clients.

C. Users will not be able to make or receive calls from/to their Avaya IXTM Workplace Clients.

D. ESMSERVER parameter has not impact on Avaya IXTM Workplace Clients functionality.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Users can register their Avaya IXTM Workplace client, whether they are located inside the Enterprise or connecting from a public network, without the need to modify client settings.

Which DNS feature makes this possible?

A. Split Horizon

B. Zone Groups

C. Auto-Resolved Alias Records

D. Redirect Domain Requests

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Which logging level on AAWG and AADS can impact server performance, and is not recommended to be left on for long periods of time?

A. INFO

B. FINEST

C. WARNING

D. ERROR

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/101064809


Question 11:

Which three options are available for the traceSBC command? (Choose three.)

A. STUN/TURN/ICE

B. SIP

C. TLS Handshake

D. SDP

E. SRTP

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 12:

Which Avaya Aura Media Server (AAMS) web GUI option allows access to the real-time monitoring tool useful for AAMS troubleshooting purposes?

A. Monitoring > Real-time viewer

B. Monitoring > Active Sessions

C. Monitoring > Real-time Tracing

D. Monitoring > Capture Traces

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://support.avaya.com/resources/sites/AVAYA/content/live/SOLUTIONS/307000/ SOLN307565/en_US/ImplementingAndAdministering_AMS_7.7.pdf


Question 13:

What is the impact of an active ESMENABLED parameter set to 0 in AADS Dynamic Configuration on an Avaya IXTM Workplace Client (Win/Mac/iOS/Android)?

A. Avaya IXTM Workplace Client will not have the “Start My Meeting” button.

B. Avaya IXTM Workplace Client will not be able to make/receive calls.

C. Avaya IXTM Workplace Client will not be able to register.

D. Avaya IXTM Workplace Client will have no access to the Multimedia Messaging service.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/101033398 (37)


Question 14:

Which protocol is used between Avaya IXTM Workplace Clients for Multimedia Messaging?

A. RTP

B. UDP

C. TLS

D. HTTPS

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

In a Team Engagement deployment, the Avaya IXTM Workplace Thick Client (Windows/Mac/iOS/Android) registers and communicates to which component?

A. Avaya Aura Web Gateway

B. Avaya Aura Media Server

C. Equinox Management Server

D. Avaya Aura Session Manager

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/101064807


Pass Guarantee CA0-001 Exam By Taking New CA0-001 VCE And PDF Braindumps

Tens of thousands of competitors, pages of hard questions and unsatisfied exam preparation situations… Do not worried about all those annoying things! We, help you with your CAPM Apr 26,2022 Newest CA0-001 vce Certified Associate in Project Management exam. We will assist you clear the Latest CA0-001 exam questions exam with CAPM CA0-001 new questions. We CA0-001 practice tests are the most comprehensive ones.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest CA0-001 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the CA0-001 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our CA0-001 dumps.Although questions are from CA0-001 free dumps, the validity and accuracy of the CA0-001 dumps are absolutely guaranteed.

Question 1:

Which type of analysis is used to develop the communications management plan?

A. Product

B. Cost benefit

C. Stakeholder

D. Research

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?

A. Control chart

B. Earned value

C. Variance

D. Trend

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Scope verification is PRIMARILY concerned with which of the following?

A. Acceptance of the work deliverables.

B. Accuracy of the work deliverables.

C. Approval of the scope statement.

D. Accuracy of the work breakdown structure.

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Which of the following is an example of contract administration?

A. Negotiating the contract

B. Authorizing contractor work

C. Developing the statement of work

D. Establishing evaluation criteria

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

How is quality control performed?

A. By identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them.

B. By monitoring specific project results in compliance with relevant quality standards and determining corrective actions as needed.

C. By ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality assurance processes.

D. By applying Monte Carlo, sampling, Pareto analysis and benchmarking techniques to ensure conformance to quality standards.

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Who is responsible for determining which processes from the Process Groups will be employed and who will be performing them?

A. Project sponsor and project manager

B. Project sponsor and functional manager

C. Project manager and project team

D. Project team and functional manager

Correct Answer: C

The project management processes are presented as discrete elements with well- defined interfaces. However, in practice they overlap and interact in ways that are not completely detailed here. Most experienced project management practitioners recognize there is more than one way to manage a project. The specifics for a project are defined as objectives that must be accomplished based on complexity, risk, size, time frame, project team\’s experience, access to resources, amount of historical information, the organization\’s project management maturity, and industry and application area. The required Process Groups and their constituent processes are guides to apply appropriate project management knowledge and skills during the project. In addition, the application of the project management processes to a project is iterative and many processes are repeated and revised during the project. The project manager and the project team are responsible for determining what processes from the Process Groups will be employed, by whom, and the degree of rigor that will be applied to the execution of those processes to achieve the desired project objective.


Question 7:

Which activity is an input to the select sellers process?

A. Organizational process assets

B. Resource availability

C. Change control process

D. Team performance assessment

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?

A. Pareto

B. Ishikawa

C. Shewart-Deming

D. Delphi

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?

A. Utilize the change control process.

B. Crash the schedule to fix the defect.

C. Leave the defect in and work around it.

D. Fast-track the remaining development.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

An input required to develop a preliminary project scope statement is:

A. Organizational Structure

B. Organizational Process Assets

C. Organizational Matrix

D. Organizational Breakdown Structures

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?

A. Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers

B. Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources

C. Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts

D. Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Which of the following inputs is required for the WBS creation?

A. Project Quality Plan

B. Project Schedule Network

C. Project Management Software

D. Project Scope Management Plan

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Which technique is utilized in the Schedule Control process?

A. Performance Measure

B. Baseline Schedule

C. Schedule Comparison

D. Variance Analysis

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected:

Actual cost = $50,000 Plan cost = $45,000 Earned value = $40,000 What is the cost performance index?

A. 0.80

B. 0.89

C. 1.13

D. 1.25

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Based on the following metrics: EV=$20,000, AC=$22,000 and PV=$28,000, what is the project CV?

A. -$8,000

B. -$2,000

C. $2,000

D. $8,000

Correct Answer: B


Pass VMCE_V9 Exam By Practicing Latest VMCE_V9 VCE and PDF Braindumps

Attention please! Here is the shortcut to pass your Apr 26,2022 Hotest VMCE_V9 free download exam! Get yourself well prepared for the VMCE Latest VMCE_V9 practice VEEAM Certified Engineer (VMCE9) exam is really a hard job. But don’t worry! We We, provides the most update VMCE_V9 dumps. With We latest VMCE_V9 exam question, you’ll pass the VMCE Hotest VMCE_V9 study guide VEEAM Certified Engineer (VMCE9) exam in an easy way

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest VMCE_V9 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the VMCE_V9 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our VMCE_V9 dumps.Do you what to see some samples before VMCE_V9 exam? Check the following VMCE_V9 free dumps or download VMCE_V9 dumps here.

Question 1:

In a Veeam Backup and Replication simple deployment scenario, the Veeam Backup Server performs the following roles:

-It functions as a management point, coordinates all jobs, controls their scheduling and performs other administrative activities.

-It is used as the default backup repository.

-It is used as a mount server and guest interaction proxy. On which drive is the Default Backup Repository stored?

A. The drive of the Veeam Backup Server with the greatest amount of free disk space at the moment of installation

B. The largest capacity drive of the Veeam Backup Server

C. Always the C:\ drive of the Veeam Backup Server

D. The setup wizard prompts on which drive to place the Default Backup Repository during installation of Veeam Backup and Replication

E. The datastore where the source VM is located

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

When should Veeam ONE utilize a remote Microsoft SQL Server as a backend?

A. When you have a large infrastructure (1000 virtual machines)

B. When you wish to install Veeam ONE Monitor Client on a separate machine

C. When you wish to perform an automatic discovery of the backup infrastructure

D. When the policy requires the assurance of multi-user access to real-time performance statistics

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: For large-scale deployments (1000 VMs), is it recommended to use a remote Microsoft SQL Server installation as a backend. It is also recommended to run Veeam ONE services on a dedicated server. Such distributed installation will improve performance of Veeam ONE services. https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/one/deployment/advanced_deployment.html?ver=95


Question 3:

When is Veeam-provided (software level) encryption used for tape media?

A. If the original backup file is not encrypted, but the administrator has enabled encryption

B. If the “Tape protection” option is enabled by the administrator

C. If the hardware encryption is disabled at the tape device level or not supported, but the administrator has enabled encryption

D. By default for all of the tape jobs

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Which one of these functionalities relies on the guest OS file system indexing?

A. Zeroing out dirty blocks

B. Searching within Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager

C. Multi-OS file-level restore

D. Application-aware processing

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Veeam Extract utility can be used to recover VMs from a full backup file (VBK). The extract utility does not require any interaction with Veeam Backup and Replication and can be used as an independent tool on Linux and Microsoft Windows machines.

Where is Veeam Extract utility located?

A. On the Veeam website in the Free tools section and in the Veeam Backup and Replication ISO file

B. %PROGRAMDATA%\Veeam folder

C. %PROGRAMFILES%\Veeam\Backup and Replication\Backup folder

Correct Answer: C

Reference Where is Veeam Extract utility located


Question 6:

Which of the following is always recommended to attach to a technical support case regarding a failed Veeam Backup and Replication job?

A. Veeam configuration backup .bco file

B. License file

C. Zipped VMs involved in the failed job

D. Log files

Correct Answer: BC


Question 7:

Which of the following Veeam Backup and Replication jobs can be set up to support GFS retention? (Choose

two.)

A. Backup Copy

B. Backup

C. Backup to tape

D. Replication

E. Configuration Backup

Correct Answer: AB


Question 8:

Which editions of Veeam Backup and Replication include Backup from Storage Snapshots?

A. All Enterprise Plus Editions

B. Enterprise Plus Edition for Hyper-V only

C. Standard, Enterprise and Enterprise Plus Edition for Hyper-V

D. Standard, Enterprise and Enterprise Plus Edition for VMware

E. Enterprise Plus Edition for VMware only

Correct Answer: E


Question 9:

Which Veeam Backup and Replication feature can be leveraged to perform a manual verification of a virtual machine backup?

A. Quick Rollback

B. On-Demand Sandbox for Storage Snapshots

C. SureReplica with network disconnected

D. Instant VM recovery with network disconnected

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/surebackup_manual.html?ver=95


Question 10:

Which of the following statements regarding encryption in Veeam Backup and Replication are true? (Choose

three.)

A. If data is encrypted at rest, it means a Backup to Tape job is storing encrypted backups on tape

B. If data is encrypted at rest, it means a Backup Job targeting a Backup Repository has encryption enabled

C. A Backup Jab has encryption enabled and is used at the source for a Backup to tape Job. If the Tape Media Pool has encryption enabled, the data will be encrypted a second time

D. A Backup Jab has encryption enabled and is used at the source for a Backup to tape Job. If the Tape Media Pool has encryption enabled, the data will be not encrypted a second time

E. To ensure backups stored on tape are encrypted, enable encryption in the Backup to Tape job

F. To ensure backups stored on tape are encrypted, enable encryption in the Tape Media Pool

Correct Answer: ACF


Question 11:

Which of the following are benefits of using DD Boost integration with Dell EMC Data Domain in Veeam Backup and Replication? (Choose three.)

A. Lower network usage

B. Enhanced synthetic full backup creation

C. Support for Reverse Incremental Backup Mode

D. Lower Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

E. Managed File Replication leveraged by Backup and Replication for Backup Copy Jobs

Correct Answer: BCE


Question 12:

How can a Backup Administrator configure user permissions and restrict those permissions to tasks such as Guest OS file restores or search for Guest OS files?

A. Install the Veeam Backup Replication Remote Console on a workstation

B. Create a Business View category in Veeam ONE

C. Use Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager roles

D. Create an Active Directory Universal Group

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

From within which of the following software products can the Veeam Backup and Replication Infrastructure be remotely monitored when plug-ins/add-ons are installed? (choose the 2 appropriate options)

A. Continuum

B. GFI MAX

C. Kaseya

D. LabTech

E. N-Able

Correct Answer: CD

References:


Question 14:

Which of the following statements are true about Veeam Backup Repositories? (Choose the 2 appropriate options)

A. Exagrid deduplication appliance requires a Veeam Gateway Server

B. EMC DataDomain deduplication appliance requires a Veeam Gateway Server

C. Veeam vPower NFS Service is only supported on Linux based Backup Repositories

D. HPE StoreOnce deduplication appliance requires a Veeam Gateway Server

E. Veeam vPower NFS Service is supported on both windows based and Linux based Backup Repositories

Correct Answer: BC

https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/backup_repository.html?ver=95


Question 15:

When configuring an On-Demand Sandbox, when should the Backup Administrator indicate that the Application Group should keep running once the job completes?

A. When running a SureBackup job

B. When configuring a SureBackup job

C. When configuring a Virtual Lab

D. When creating an Application Group

Correct Answer: A


[PDF and VCE] Format for Free 1z0-144 Dumps With Exam Questions Download

Attention please! Here is the shortcut to pass your Apr 24,2022 Newest 1z0-144 pdf dumps exam! Get yourself well prepared for the Oracle Database Hotest 1z0-144 pdf Oracle Database 11g: Program with PL/SQL exam is really a hard job. But don’t worry! We We, provides the most update latest 1z0-144 dumps. With We latest 1z0-144 vce, you’ll pass the Oracle Database Newest 1z0-144 vce Oracle Database 11g: Program with PL/SQL exam in an easy way

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 1z0-144 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the 1z0-144 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 1z0-144 dumps.Free sample questions of 1z0-144 free dumps are provided here. All the following questions are from the latest real 1z0-144 dumps.

Question 1:

Examine the following command:

SQL>ALTER SESSION SET plsql_warnings * \’enable: severe\’, \’enable: performance\’, \’ERROR: 05003\’;

What is the implication of the above command?

A. It issues a warning whenever ERROR: 05003 occur during compilation.

B. It causes the compilation to fail whenever the warning ERROR.05003 occurs.

C. It issues warnings whenever the code causes an unexpected action or wrong results performance problems.

D. It causes the compilation to fail whenever the code gives wrong results or contains statements that are never executed.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

View Exhibit 1 and examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table.

View Exhibit 2 and examine the code.

What would be the outcome when the code is executed?

A. It executes successfully.

B. It gives an error because the SAL variable is not visible in the INCREASE function.

C. It gives an error because the INCREASE function cannot be called from the RAISE_SALARY procedure.

D. It gives an error because the INCREASE function and the RAISE_SALARY procedure should be declared at the beginning of the DECLARE section before all the other declarations.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which statements are true about PL/SQL procedures? (Choose two.)

A. Users with definer\’s rights who are granted access to a procedure that updates a table must be granted access to the table itself.

B. Reuse of parsed PL/SQL code that becomes available in the shared SQL area of the server avoids the parsing overhead of SQL statements at run time.

C. Depending on the number of calls, multiple copies of the procedure are loaded into memory for execution by multiple users to speed up performance.

D. A PL/SQL procedure executing on the Oracle database can call an external procedure or function that is written in a different programming language, such as C or Java.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 4:

The STRING_TAB table has the following structure:

View the Exhibit and examine the code.

What is the outcome on execution?

A. It displays Output buffer not long enough. This is my test string.-.

B. It displays only Output buffer not long enough. and exits the anonymous block.

C. It displays only This is my test string.

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Identify two situations where the DBMS_SQL package should be used. (Choose two.)

A. The SELECT list is not known until run time.

B. The dynamic SQL statement retrieves rows into records.

C. You do not know how many columns a SELECT statement will return, or what their data types will be.

D. You must use the % FOUND SQL cursor attribute after issuing a dynamic SQL statement that is an INSERT or UPDATE statement.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 6:

View the Exhibit and examine the code.

Why does the code give an error on execution?

A. because the WORD_LIST variable is not visible in PROCEDURE WORDING

B. because the LEXICON variable is not visible in PROCEDURE ADD_ENTRY

C. because the LEXICON variable is not initialized in PROCEDURE WORDING

D. because the WORD_LIST parameter in IN OUT mode cannot be of a RECORD data type

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the EMP table.

You want to create two procedures using the overloading feature to search for employee details based on either the employee name or employee number. Which two rules should you apply to ensure that the overloading feature is used successfully? (Choose two.)

A. The procedures can be either stand-alone or packaged.

B. The procedures should be created only as packaged subprograms.

C. The procedures should be created only as stand-alone subprograms.

D. Each subprogram\’s formal parameters should differ in both name and data type.

E. The formal parameters of each subprogram should differ in data type but can use the same names.

Correct Answer: BE


Question 8:

Which two statements are true about the INSTEAD OF triggers? (Choose two.)

A. DELETE operations cannot be performed using the INSTEAD OF triggers.

B. The INSTEAD OF triggers must be created to add or modify data through any view.

C. The INSTEAD OF triggers can be written only for views, and the BEFORE and AFTER timing options are not valid.

D. The CHECK option for views is not enforced when insertions or updates to the view are performed by using the INSTEAD OF triggers.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 9:

Which two statements are correct about the usage of parameters in functions? (Choose two.)

A. Functions can have only in mode parameters.

B. Functions called in SQL statements cannot have out or in out mode parameters.

C. Functions having in, out, or in out parameters can be called only in named PL/SQL subprograms

D. Functions having in, out, or in out parameters can be called in PL/SQL procedures and anonymous blocks.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 10:

View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the employees table.

Examine the following block of code:

What is the outcome when the above code is executed?

A. It executes successfully.

B. It gives an error because decode cannot be used in a PL/SQL block.

C. It gives an error because the AVG function cannot be used in a PL/SQL block

D. It gives an error because the MONTHS_BETWEEN function cannot be used in a PL/SQL block.

E. It gives an error because both the AVG and decode functions cannot be used in a PL/SQL block.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

/temp/my_files is an existing folder in the server, facultylist.txt is an existing text file in this folder.

Examine the following commands that are executed by the DBA:

SQL>CREATE DIRECTION my_dir AS `/temp/my_files\’:

SQL>GRANT READ ON DIRECTORY my_dir To public:

View the Exhibit and examine the procedure created by user SCOTT to read the list of faculty names from the text file.

SCOTT executes the procedure as follows:

SQL>SET SERVEROUTPUT ON

SQL>EXEC read_file (`MY_DIR\’, FACULTYLIST.TXT\’)

What is the outcome?

A. It goes into an infinite loop.

B. It executes successfully and displays only the list of faculty names.

C. It does not execute and displays an error message because the end-of-file condition is not taken care of.

D. It executes successfully and displays the list of faculty names followed by a “no data found” error message.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

View the Exhibit to examine the PL/SQL block.

Which two statements are true about the execution of the PL/SQL block? (Choose two.)

A. It executes successfully and gives the desired output.

B. It does not execute because the definition of type POPULATION is indexed by VARCHAR2.

C. It executes, and the string keys of an associative array are not stored in creation order, but in sorted order.

D. It does not execute because the value that is once assigned to the element of the associative array cannot be changed.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 13:

User SCOTT has been granted CREATE ANY TRIGGER and ALTER ANY TABLE by the DBA. HR is an existing schema in the database.

SCOTT creates the following trigger:

CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER drop_trigger

BEFORE DROP ON hr.SCHEMA

BEGIN

RAISE_APPLICATION_ERROR (-20000, `Cannot drop object\’);

END;

SCOTT does not grant the EXECUTE privilege on this trigger to any other users.

For which user(s) would this trigger fire by default when they drop an object in the HR schema?

A. Only HR

B. SCOTT and HR

C. Only SCOTT

D. SCOTT, HR, and SYS

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which two statements are true about the continue statement? (Choose two.)

A. The PL/SQL block execution terminates immediately.

B. The CONTINUE statement cannot appear outside a loop.

C. The loop completes immediately and control passes to the statement after end loop.

D. The statements after the continue statement in the iteration are executed before terminating the LOOP.

E. The current iteration of the loop completes immediately and control passes to the next iteration of the loop.

Correct Answer: BE


Question 15:

View the Exhibit and examine the code and its outcome on execution: What would be the effect on the two procedures if the value of debug is set to FALSE? (Choose two.)

A. MY_PROC2 is not recompiled.

B. MY_PROC1 is recompiled but remains unchanged.

C. MY_PROC2 is recompiled but remains unchanged.

D. MY_PROC1 is recompiled without the debugging code.

Correct Answer: CD


Free Sharing Updated 1z0-1004 VCE and PDF Exam Practice Materials

Do not worry about that if you are stuck in the SaaS-ERP Enterprise Business Processes Latest 1z0-1004 practice exam difficulties, We will assist you all your way through the SaaS-ERP Enterprise Business Processes Hotest 1z0-1004 exam questions Oracle Financials Cloud: General Ledger 2018 Implementation Essentials exam with the most update SaaS-ERP Enterprise Business Processes 1z0-1004 real exam questions. We exam 1z0-1004 dumps are the most comprehensive material, covering every key knowledge of Apr 24,2022 Hotest 1z0-1004 vce dumps Oracle Financials Cloud: General Ledger 2018 Implementation Essentials exam.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 1z0-1004 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the 1z0-1004 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 1z0-1004 dumps.These questions are from 1z0-1004 free dumps. All questions in 1z0-1004 dumps are from the latest 1z0-1004 real exams.

Question 1:

When working with Essbase, versions of the tree hierarchy as defined in the General Ledger Cloud are not available in the Essbase balances cube. What should you do to correct this situation?

A. Make sure to flatten the rows of the tree version

B. Make sure the tree is active

C. Make sure the tree version was published successfully

D. Redeploy the chart of accounts

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which feature outside of reporting and analysis leverages the Essbase cube?

A. revaluations and translation to revalue and translate currencies stored in the Essbase cube

B. calculation manager to perform allocations based on multidimensional balances and budgets

C. period closing and opening of ledgers to keep General Ledger Cloud and the Essbase cubes in sync

D. journal entries and journal approval to create journals that update balances to the cube directly

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

After loading your budget data into General Ledger Cloud, you can view budget balances using these features. Which feature does not belong on the list?

A. Application Development Framework Desktop Integration Budget Balances Report

B. Account Monitor

C. Smart View

D. Account Inspector

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

You need to define multiple allocation rules as efficiency as possible.

Which three components can be reused across allocation rules? (Choose three.)

A. Point of View (POV)

B. Formulas

C. Run Time Prompts (RTP)

D. RuleSets

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 5:

The budget managers specify the budget accounts they want to monitor and decide on percentage threshold of funds availability. Where must you define the details while analyzing budget balances in the Budget Account Monitor page?

A. Budget Controller

B. Budget Group

C. Account Group

D. Budget Account Group

E. Application Development Framework Desktop Integration (ADFdi)

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Your customer has many eliminating entries to eliminate intercompany balances. The General Ledger does not include a purpose-built Consolidation feature. How would you automate the process of creating eliminating entries, assuming your customer is not using Oracle Hyperion Financial Close Management?

A. Use the General Ledger\’s Calculation Manager to define an allocation definition to eliminate entries that you can generate every period

B. Use the spreadsheet template that is accessed from the “Create Journal in Spreadsheet” task and import the spreadsheet with the eliminating entries every period

C. There is no way to automate this process if the customer is not using Oracle Hyperion Financial Close Management

D. Create a manual journal that includes the eliminating entries, and then create a copy of the journal batch every period

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

You are implementing Segment Value Security rules. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. When you enable Segment Value Security on a segment, users will not be able to access any values until you grant access to users and products

B. You can use hierarchies to define rules

C. When you enable or disable Segment Value Security, you do not need to redeploy your chart of accounts

D. The Segment Value Security rules do not take effect until you assign the rules to users and products

Correct Answer: AB


Question 8:

The Accounting Manager requests that a schedule be created to automatically post journals from subledgers at different times. Which journal attribute should you use to set the automatic posting criteria?

A. Journal Source

B. Journal Category

C. Journal Batch

D. Journal Description

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Account combinations can be created and/or modified using the Import Account Combinations file-based data import (FBDI). Which represents the appropriate upload steps?

A. Submit the Import Account Combinations process, then insert rows into the GL_MULTI_COMBINATIONS_INT table using the FBDI template.

B. Insert rows into the GL_BULK_COMBINATIONS_INT table using the FBDI template and then submit the Import Account Combinations process.

C. Insert rows into the GL_MULTI_COMBINATIONS_INT table using the FBDI template and then submit the Import Account Combinations process.

D. Submit the Import Account Combinations process, then insert rows into the GL_BULK_COMBINATIONS_INT table using the FBDI template.

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which three objectives must be considered when designing the chart of accounts? (Choose three.)

A. Anticipate growth and maintenance needs as organizational changes occur

B. Effectively manage an organization\’s financial business

C. Try to use all 30 segments and 25 characters per segment because you cannot change it later

D. Consider implementing a single, global chart of accounts

E. Limit the number of segments to those you need today to reduce data entry

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 11:

Your customer wants to create fully balanced balance sheets for the Company, Line of Business, and Product segments for both financial and management reporting. What is Oracle\’s recommended method for doing this?

A. Create a segment that acts as the primary balancing segment and create values that represent a concatenation of all three business dimensions

B. Use account hierarchies to create different hierarchies for different purposes and use those hierarchies for reporting

C. Create three segments for the Company, Line of Business, and Product segments and qualify them as primary balancing segment, second, and third balancing segments, respectively

D. Create two segments where the first segment represents the concatenation of Company and Line of Business, and then enable secondary tracking for the Product segment

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Your customer has enabled budgetary control for purchase orders. They have a purchase order for $1,000 USD which is fully reserved. An invoice for $600 is entered and matched to the purchase order, and the purchase order is closed for

further invoicing.

What happens to the remaining $400 USD?

A. Invoice type will have less funds available by $400 USD

B. $400 USD will be expired and not available for use

C. $400 USD will be added back to available funds

D. Only obligation type will have $400 USD funds available

E. Manual encumbrance journal needs to be entered in General Ledger to release the budget amount of $400 USD

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

You have enabled budgetary control and have a control budget set to Advisory control level. For September 2016, your budget for a given account combination is $5,000 USD. In the same month, there is an approved requisition for that account of $900 and an approved purchase order for that account of $2,500 USD. There is also a General Ledger adjustment journal entry for that account of $1,600 USD. An approved purchase order line of $400 USD is then cancelled. And an invoice is matched to the purchase order for $2,100 USD. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. No change

B. Purchase order encumbrance will be released for $2,100 USD

C. Funds reservation only happens for non-matched invoices, so the system will not reserve funds

D. As there are cancellations for $400 USD, the system will partially reserve the funds in September 2016 and fully reserve it in October 2016

E. The system always consumes budget of future periods if the limit for the current period is expired, so October 2016 budget will be considered for reservation

Correct Answer: BD


Question 14:

You are reconciling your subledger balances and you need a report that includes beginning and ending account balances and all transactions that constitute the account\’s activities. What type of report will provide this type of information?

A. Account Analysis Reports

B. Aging Reports

C. an Online Transactional Business Intelligence (OTBI) report to create ad hoc queries on transactions and balances

D. Journals Reports

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

The Delete Translated Balances process provides the ability to completely reset translations in the event that significant changes are made to the accounting configuration. Once the deletion process completes, what additional process must you run?

A. Submit the Update General Ledger Balances Cube process to ensure that the balances cube maintains translated balances that are consistent with future translations.

B. Submit the Create General Ledger Balances Cube process to ensure that the balances cube maintains translated balances that are consistent with future translations.

C. Submit the Create Currency Dimension Members process to ensure that the balances cube maintains translated balances that are consistent with future translations.

D. Submit the Create Scenario Dimension Members process to ensure that the balances cube maintains translated balances that are consistent with future translations.

Correct Answer: B


[Newest Version] Easily Pass 1Z0-100 Exam with Updated Real 1Z0-100 Exam Materials

Tens of thousands of competitors, pages of hard questions and unsatisfied exam preparation situations… Do not worried about all those annoying things! We, help you with your Operating Systems Latest 1Z0-100 QAs Oracle Linux 5 and 6 System Administration exam. We will assist you clear the Apr 21,2022 Latest 1Z0-100 practice exam with Operating Systems 1Z0-100 pdf. We 1Z0-100 exam questions are the most comprehensive ones.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 1Z0-100 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the 1Z0-100 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 1Z0-100 dumps.Although questions are from 1Z0-100 free dumps, the validity and accuracy of the 1Z0-100 dumps are absolutely guaranteed.

Question 1:

Which two statements are true concerning the installation and configuration of the bootloader by the Anaconda installer, which is then used to boot Oracle Linux?

A. The Linux Loader (LILO) bootloader may be chosen for installation.

B. The bootloader must be password protected and Anaconda prompts for a password in all cases.

C. The Grand Unified Bootloader (GRUB) is the only bootloader used by Oracle Linux.

D. If previously installed operating systems are found on disk partitions that were not overwritten, then an attempt is made to configure the bootloader to be able to boot them.

E. The bootloader is installed by default in the first partition of the disk.

Correct Answer: AE

A (not C): Linux boot process from hard drive:

1.

PC initializion phase – BIOS, POST.

2.

PC starts boot loader – usually grub or lilo.

3.

The bootloader locates kernel image on the hard drive.

4.

The kernel decompresses and loads itself. Once finished it tries to mount the root filesystem.

5.

When the root filesystem is mounted, /sbin/init is executed and continues booting the system using inittab and /etc/rc*.d scripts


Question 2:

Examine these statements and their output taken right after successful install of Oracle Linux:

[[email protected] /] rpm q firstboot Firstboot -1.110.10-1.0.2.e16.x86_64 [root @FAROUT /] # chkconfig – – list firstboot

Firstboot 0:off 2:off 3:off 4:off 5:off 6;off

[[email protected] /] # /etc/sysconfig/firstboot RUN_FIRSTBOOT=NO What is the conclusion?

A. The option to run firstboot was deselected during Oracle Linux installation.

B. The system was installed with desktop graphical packages and rebooted and the firstboot utility ran successful.

C. Firstboot never ran in any run level because the service is turned off for all run levels.

D. The system was installed without selecting desktop graphical packages, thereby disabling firstboot from running.

Correct Answer: A

Firstboot is set to off for all levels.

Example:

The rm command below remove or delate the firstboot file in order to make sure the firstboot program running when we restart or reboot the Fedora machine.

[[email protected] ~]# rm /etc/sysconfig/firstboot

rm: remove regular file `/etc/sysconfig/firstboot\’? y [[email protected] ~]#

Then check and make sure that firstboot program or firstboot service is run when your Fedora startup/boot up.

Check firstboot services

[[email protected] ~]# chkconfig –list firstboot

firstboot 0:off 1:off 2:off 3:off 4:off 5:off 6:off

[[email protected] ~]#


Question 3:

Which three settings can be controlled by using the chage breemar command as the root user, to modify the parameters in the /etc/shadow file?

A. The expiration date of the breemar account

B. The number of days after the breemar account is locked, that it becomes expired

C. The maximum number of days that must elapse between password changes by the user breemar before the password becomes invalid

D. The number of days after the breemar account is locked, that it becomes unlocked

E. The minimum number of days that must elapse between password changes by the user breemar

F. The maximum number of failed login attempts on the breemar account before the account is locked

Correct Answer: ACE

A: chage -E, –expiredate EXPIRE_DATE

Set the date or number of days since January 1, 1970 on which the user\’s account will no longer be accessible.

CE: You need to use chage command to setup password aging. The chage command changes the number of days between password changes and the date of the last password change. This information is used by the system to determine when a user must change his/her password.


Question 4:

Examine this extract from the /etc/ssh/sshd_config file:

passwordAuthentication no

What is the effect of this parameter settings on the use of openSSH commands on both the client and server?

A. Passwords are not required and no ssh-keygen is required either. Only passphrase are required.

B. Client users whose keys are not in the authorized_keys file on the server are unable to use passwords to authenticate themselves to the server.

C. The ssh daemon does not ask for a password before starting or stopping the sshd service.

D. Client users whose keys are not in the authorized_keys file on the client are unable to use passwords to authenticate themselves to the server.

Correct Answer: B

If you set PasswordAuthentication to no, you will no longer be able to use a login and password to authenticate and must use a login and public key instead (if PubkeyAuthentication is set to yes).


Question 5:

Which four statements are true about software on the Oracle Public YUM server?

A. It contains Oracle Linux installation ISO images.

B. It contains Oracle Linux binary RPM packages.

C. It contains Oracle Linux errata packages.

D. It contains Oracle Linux source RPM packages.

E. It contains beta Oracle Linux software packages.

F. It does not contain Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel packages.

Correct Answer: BCDF

The Oracle public yum server offers a free and convenient way to install the latest Oracle Linux packages as well as packages from the Oracle VM installation media via a yum client. Oracle provides all errata and updates for Oracle Linux via the Public Yum service, which includes updates to the base distribution, but does not include Oracle-specific software.

F: By default, all new installations of Oracle Linux 6 Update 5 are automatically configured to use the public yum update service. If you subsequently register the system with ULN, the public yum service is automatically disabled.


Question 6:

This MDADM output:

Which two aspects can be determined from this output?

A. A device failed and has been removed from this RAID set.

B. It is no longer possible to write to this RAID set.

C. Read and write performance is no longer optimal on this RAID set.

D. This RAID set was built without a spare device.

E. Only Write performance is no longer optimal on this RAID set.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 7:

Examine the command on its output: [[email protected] ~] # modprobe 璿 nfs Insmod /lib/modules/2.6.39-100.0.12.e16uek.x86_64/kernel/fs/nfs_common/nfs_acl.ko insmod /lob/ modules/2.6.39

100.0.12.e16uek.x86_64/kernel/net/sunrpc/auth_gss/auth_rpcgss.ko Insmod /lib/modules/2.6.39-100.0.12.e16uek.x86_64/kernel/fs/fscache/fscache/ko Insmod /lib/modules/2.6.39-100.0.12.e16uek.x86_64/kernel/fs/locked.ko Insmod /lib/modules/2.6.39-100.0.12.e16uek.x86_64/kernel/fs/nfs/nfs.ko Which two statements are true about the modprobe command?

A. It will load the nfs module if all the modules upon which it depends have been loaded.

B. It displays the dependency resolution for the nfs module and loads all the modules upon which nfs depends before loading the nfs module.

C. It verifies that the nfs module and all other modules that depend on the nfs module are installed.

D. It displays the dependency resolution that would occur if the nfs module were to be loaded using modprobe nfs.

E. It only loads the nfs module if all the modules upon which it depends have not been loaded yet.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://redhat.activeventure.com/8/customizationguide/ch-kernel-modules.html (kernel module utilities)


Question 8:

Examine this output: # df 璽 nfs Filesystem Size Used Avail Use% Mounted on

o16:export 30G 21G 7.6G 74% /mnt

# 1s -1 /mnt/nfs.sh -rwxr-mr-x. 1 root root 22 May 8 16:37 /mnt/nfs.sh # file /mnt/nfs.sh

/mnt/nfs.sh: Bourne-Again shell script text executables

# /mnt/nfs.sh bash: /mnt/nfs.sh: Permission denied What is the reason for the error?

A. The file system was exported on host o16 using the ROOT_SQUASH option.

B. The /export filesystem was mounted with the NOEXEC option on host o16.

C. The filesystem mounted on /mnt was mounted with the NOEXEC option.

D. The filesystem was exported on host o16 by using the NO_ROOT_SQUASH option.

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which two software packages are prerequisites for enabling the configuration and use of a Network information Service (Nis) client?

A. nis-tools

B. slapi-nis

C. ypbind

D. nisserv

E. nisbind

F. yp-tools

Correct Answer: CE

C: ypbind finds the server for NIS domains and maintains the NIS binding information. The client (normaly the NIS routines in the standard C library) could get the information over RPC from ypbind or read the binding files.

E: Setting up a NIS master server:

Required packages: yp-tools ypbind ypserv portmap


Question 10:

You recently updated the strace package to the latest version as shown: What is the outcome of running this command?

A. It downgrades the strace package to version 4.5.19-1.6.e16.

B. It downgrades strace package to version 4.5.19-1.11.e16_3.2.

C. It fails with an error because you cannot downgrade a package using the yum command.

D. It fails with an error because there are multiple versions available to which Yum can downgrade the strace package.

E. It will prompt you to select a version of the strace package that you want to downgrade.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which two Statements are true concerning the configuration and use of cron and anacron?

A. Anacron jobs are used to make sure cron jobs run if the system had been down when they were meant to run.

B. All crontabs are held in the /etc/cron.d directory.

C. Cron jobs may run as frequently as once a minute.

D. Anacron jobs may run as frequently as once a minute.

E. The crond daemon looks for jobs only in /etc/crontab.

Correct Answer: CE

Note: Anacron is the cron for desktops and laptops.

Anacron does not expect the system to be running 24 x 7 like a server.

When you want a background job to be executed automatically on a machine that is not running 24 x 7, you should use anacron.

Incorrect:

not D: /etc/anacrontab file has the anacron jobs mentioned in the following format.

period delay job-identifier command

Field 1 is Recurrence period: This is a numeric value that specifies the number of days.

1 daily

7 weekly

30 monthly

N This can be any numeric value. N indicates number of days


Question 12:

Which statement is true concerning the /etc/sysconfig directory and its files and subdirectories?

A. The contents are always the same for a specific version of the Oracle Linux Kernel.

B. The file /etc/sysconfig/init is used by upstart to control the attributes of the tty devices that get started.

C. The directory /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts contains files that must not be modified while the network is up.

D. The files only contain default values for certain daemon processes.

Correct Answer: B

The /etc/sysconfig/init file controls how the system appears and functions during the boot process.

Note: The /etc/sysconfig directory contains files that control your system\’s configuration. The contents of this directory depend on the packages that you have installed on your system


Question 13:

Examine the routing table:

Which three statements are true concerning the routing of IP packets?

A. Traffic to 192.168.180.180 is routed via eth1.

B. Traffic to 192.168.180.240 is routed via eth1.

C. Traffic to 192.168.0.42 is routed via eth2.

D. Traffic to 192.168.42.42 is routed via eth2.

E. Traffic to 192.168.42.42 is routed via eth0.

F. Traffic to 192.168.180.180 is routed via eth0.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 14:

What is the purpose of Setting AUTOINSTALL to YES /etc/uptrack.conf?

A. To install Ksplice kernel updates during the reboot of a system

B. To install updates to the Ksplice software Itself during a system reboot

C. To enable the uptrack cron job to install Ksplice kernel updates whenever they become available

D. To enable Ksplice to automatically install the kernel rpm whenever new Ksplice kernel updates become available

E. To enable Ksplice to install Ksplice kernel updates and new kernel RPMS whenever they become available

Correct Answer: D

If you\’d like Ksplice Uptrack to automatically install updates as they become available, run:

sh install-uptrack YOUR_ACCESS_KEY –autoinstall

in place of the above install-uptrack command, or set “autoinstall = yes” in your /etc/uptrack/uptrack.conf after installation.

Note: Automatic updates

You can configure your systems to automatically install updates as they become available. To enable autoinstall, set autoinstall = yes in your /etc/uptrack/uptrack.conf, or pass the –autoinstall flag during installation.

Autoinstall is our most popular configuration. It is a scalable way to ensure that updates get installed quickly as they become available, regardless of when they are released.

Please note that enabling autoinstall does not mean the Uptrack client itself is automatically upgraded. You will be notified via e-mail when a new Uptrack client is available, and it can be upgraded through your package manager.


Question 15:

Which two conditions should be met in order to successfully configure an openssh client on Oracle Linux?

A. The openssh-server package must not be installed.

B. The openssh package must be installed.

C. The sshd daemon must not be started.

D. The openssh-client package must be installed.

E. The ssh-agent must be started.

F. ssh keys must be generated by any user using the ssh client.

Correct Answer: BD

To connect to an OpenSSH server from a client machine, you must have the openssh-clients and openssh packages installed on the client machine.


[Newest Version] Free 2v0-81.20 PDF and Exam Questions Download 100% Pass Exam

Don’t worry about how to get yourself well prepared your VCP-SEC 2021 Newest 2v0-81.20 practice exam! We will work you out of your VCP-SEC 2021 Apr 20,2022 Hotest 2v0-81.20 vce exam with the latest updated Professional VMware Security 2v0-81.20 pdf . We provides the latest real VCP-SEC 2021 2v0-81.20 exam question, covering every aspect of Latest 2v0-81.20 study guide exam curriculum.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 2v0-81.20 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the 2v0-81.20 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 2v0-81.20 dumps.These questions are from 2v0-81.20 free dumps. All questions in 2v0-81.20 dumps are from the latest 2v0-81.20 real exams.

Question 1:

Which file can be used to validate repcli authentication was enabled for Carbon Black Cloud?

A. C:\Program Files\Confer\repcii.ini

B. C:\Program Files\Confer\config.ini

C. C:\Program Files\Confer\cfg.ini

D. C:\Program Files\Confer\cli.ini

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Which is the correct Distinguished Name for connecting NSX-T Data Center to Active Directory, if your directory name is corp. local?

A. corp. local

B. DC=corp. local

C. DC=corp, DC=local

D. DC=local, DC=corp

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

What are two valid time limit selections when creating a Last Seen compliance policy in Workspace ONE UEM? (Choose two.)

A. Hours

B. Minutes

C. Days

D. Weeks

E. Months

Correct Answer: BC


Question 4:

Which is true about Time-Based Firewall Policy rules?

A. Time-Based policy rules apply only to the NSX Distributed Firewall.

B. Time-Based policy rules apply to the NSX Gateway and Distributed Firewall.

C. Time-Based policy rules can only be used one time for NSX Gateway Firewall.

D. Time-Based policy rules apply only to the NSX Gateway Firewall.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

An administrator found an unwanted/untrusted application running in their environment.

What is the most efficient way of preventing the unwanted application from running and stopping any

existing instances in Carbon Black Cloud?

A. Mark the file as a PUP (Potentially Unwanted Program).

B. Add a rule to each policy for unwanted.exe runs or if running terminate.

C. Send a delete application request to each machine.

D. Add the unwanted files hash to the company banned list.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

In the NSX Manager UI, which tab is selected to manage firewall rules?

A. Plan and Troubleshoot tab

B. Security tab

C. Inventory tab

D. Networking tab

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which is the name of the default policy that is applied to all applications in Workspace ONE Access?

A. primary_policy

B. default_policy

C. default_access_policy_set

D. default_application_policy

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

In a Carbon Black Cloud deployment, which two are recommended troubleshooting steps for Live Response not working? (Choose two.)

A. Restart the Live Response Service three times to autocorrect.

B. Ensure a duplicate Live Response session does not exist.

C. Confirm Live Response is enabled in Sensor Policy settings.

D. Ensure the account has RBAC permission for Live Response.

E. Confirm the Live Response timeline spans the search window.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 9:

When creating a sensor group in VMware Carbon Black Cloud, which three are valid criteria? (Choose three.)

A. Location Name

B. Organizational Username

C. Active Directory Organizational Unit

D. Subnet

E. Device Name

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 10:

What is the correct sequence of options when creating a new compliance policy in Workspace ONE UEM?

A. Actions, Assignment, Rules, Summary

B. Rules, Actions, Assignment, Summary

C. Assignment, Rules, Actions, Summary

D. Rules, Assignment, Actions, Summary

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which is the built-in two factor authentication method in Workspace ONE Access?

A. VMware Verify

B. VMware SMS

C. VMware Auth

D. VMware Push

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

What command was run on the NSX Edge node to pull this information?

A. get tunnel-ID

B. show vteps

C. get vteps

D. list vteps

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

What command does an administrator use on an ESXi Transport Node to check connectivity with the management plane?

A. esxcli network ip connection list 1234

B. esxcli firewall ip connection list | grep 1234

C. esxcli ip connection 1234

D. esxcli network ip connection list | grep 1234

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Which Carbon Black Cloud feature allows an administrator to audit at scale and identify gaps in least privilege configuration controls?

A. Watchlist

B. Live Query

C. Investigate

D. CB Baseline Tool

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

In what order are NSX-T Distributed Firewall configurable rules categories processed?

A. Emergency, Ethernet, Environment, Infrastructure, Application

B. Ethernet, Environment, Infrastructure, Application, Emergency

C. Ethernet, Emergency, Infrastructure, Environment, Application

D. Emergency, Ethernet, Infrastructure, Environment, Application

Correct Answer: C


[Latest Version] Easily Pass p1000-015 Exam With Updated p1000-015 Preparation Materials

Tens of thousands of competitors, pages of hard questions and unsatisfied exam preparation situations… Do not worried about all those annoying things! We, help you with your IBM Other Certification Newest p1000-015 pdf IBM B2B Collaboration Solutions Technical Mastery v2 exam. We will assist you clear the Apr 19,2022 Newest p1000-015 pdf dumps exam with IBM Other Certification p1000-015 real exam questions. We p1000-015 new questions are the most comprehensive ones.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest p1000-015 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the p1000-015 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our p1000-015 dumps.The following questions and answers are from the latest p1000-015 free dumps. It will help you understand the validity of the latest p1000-015 dumps.

Question 1:

When meeting with business users who are more involved in the day-to-day activities, what is a key discovery question that will help Connect:Direct win by highlighting its value play?

A. What is your budget?

B. Is FTP secure enough?

C. What programming language is the most supported in your company?

D. What solutions have been tried in the past or are in place for this problem?

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Based on the battle card, who is a top competitor for IBM\’s B2B Collaboration offerings?

A. FileZilla

B. RSSBus

C. Control Center

D. Axway

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

What is the key difference between the pricing models for Connect:Direct Premium versus Standard editions?

A. The Premium edition can talk to many endpoints, while the Standard edition can only talk to one endpoint

B. The Premium edition is priced by PVUs, while the Standard edition is priced by simultaneous sessions

C. The Premium edition includes the C:D High Speed add-on for long distance and large file transport, and this add-on is available for purchase on the Standard edition

D. The price of the Premium edition includes unlimited non-production environments, while the environments are limited on the Standard edition

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.ibm.com/developerworks/community/forums/html/topic?id=48cabedd-37f4-45db8801-9efeb77929fe


Question 4:

Which product in the MFT portfolio is a market leader, and has NEVER been breached?

A. Connect:Direct

B. B2B Integrator

C. WebSphere Commerce

D. ITXA

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.ibm.com/downloads/cas/KXXWGXWA


Question 5:

Which IBM strength should be highlighted when going against competitors in the B2B/MFT space?

A. IBM tools include Watson, which can automatically build data maps

B. IBM\’s B2B Solutions are tightly integrated with our WebSphere Commerce platform

C. IBM is a very strong in Security and this solution has never been breached

D. IBM B2B/MFT Solutions are available in 10 languages

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.ibm.com/case-studies/elektronabavawebspherecommerce


Question 6:

Who is IBM B2B Software\’s biggest competitor. In terms of B2B Cloud Services offering?

A. webMethods

B. TIBCO

C. Opentext/GXS

D. Axway

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.itcentralstation.com/products/ibm-b2b-integrator-alternatives-and-competitors


Question 7:

Sterling Secure Proxy is add-on module for Sterling File Gateway (SFG) and/or which product?

A. Gentran

B. WebSphere Commerce

C. Connect:Direct

D. Bluemix

Correct Answer: C

Reference: ftp://public.dhe.ibm.com/software/commerce/doc/mft/ssp/34/ SSP_Reverse_Proxy_Scenarios_SSO_Book.pdf


Question 8:

Which is a competitor you will likely face for B2B Collaboration solutions?

A. Salesforce

B. ClickTale

C. GlobalSCAPE

D. Axway

E. Adobe

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.g2crowd.com/products/ibm-b2b-collaboration/competitors/alternatives


Question 9:

What is a main business value provided by IBM Control Center?

A. Controls access to sensitive personal information and HIPAA data

B. Provides centralized monitoring and alerting capabilities for B2B integration and MFT file exchanges

C. Reduces risk associated with data loss from security breach

D. Provides centralized and easy onboarding of customers, large and small

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://www-01.ibm.com/common/ssi/ShowDoc.wss?docURL=/common/ssi/rep_ca/1/897/ ENUS216-111/index.htmlandlang=enandrequest_locale=en


Question 10:

What is the primary value proposition for MFT?

A. Allowing clients to integrate business processes by sending/receiving files with their trading community

B. Tracking and managing partner skills and engagement

C. Bundles enveloping, pre-processing, mapping, de-enveloping, and post processing into a single tool which is very effective for EDI

D. Enabling unsecure and unaudited file exchanges to occur throughout the organization

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://www.redbooks.ibm.com/redbooks/pdfs/sg247927.pdf


Question 11:

For B2B Collaboration Solutions, each instance of QA, Dev or Test in a separate license and part number. What does IBM typically charge for each non-production deployment?

A. 25% of the charge for production

B. 100% or the same charge as for production

C. 75% of the charge for production

D. 50% of the charge for production

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Who is the primary target audience for MFT?

A. IT Director

B. Chief Financial Officer

C. Chief Supply Chain Officer

D. Senior Fulfillment Manager

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

For B2B Collaboration Solutions pricing, what are entitlements controlled by?

A. PPA/IPLA agreement

B. The level of security required

C. Keys

D. The industry sector of the client

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which two statements about providing sales quotes for Watson Supply Chain offerings are correct?

A. Quotes are based on part numbers and the quantity required, and other factors such as historical spend with IBM

B. Sales reps do not need to check the Global Watch List

C. The manager is required to review every quote before it is released

D. To encourage cross-selling, quotes are based on the number of solutions purchased by the client location only

E. Sellers must use quotes generated from the SQO system

Correct Answer: AB


Question 15:

Which two plays are appropriate when discussing B2B Software with customers?

A. Discuss the integration of our B2B Software with our Lotus Notes platform

B. Discuss bundling file transfer and EDI into a single server-based solution (e.g. EDI and HIPAA compliance)

C. Mention the offer to subscribe to 2 years of SandS and get the 3rd year free of charge

D. Discuss potential for consolidation of current solutions

E. Discuss the 90-day “Try Before You Buy” program

Correct Answer: DE


[PDF and VCE] Latest DES-1221 Exam Practice Materials Free Downloading

Tens of thousands of competitors, pages of hard questions and unsatisfied exam preparation situations… Do not worried about all those annoying things! We, help you with your DCS-IE Newest DES-1221 QAs Specialist – Implementation Engineer, PowerStore Solutions exam. We will assist you clear the Apr 18,2022 Hotest DES-1221 exam questions exam with DCS-IE latest DES-1221 dumps. We DES-1221 exam questions are the most comprehensive ones.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest DES-1221 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the DES-1221 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our DES-1221 dumps.Real questions from DES-1221 free dumps. Download demo of DES-1221 dumps to check the validity.

Question 1:

What does the remote replication Failover operation do?

A. Fully synchronizes the source and destination data states and reverses the replication direction

B. Fully synchronizes the source and destination data states and stops the current replication session

C. Promotes the destination system to production with its replica data consistent to the last successful RPO synchronization state

D. Promotes the destination system to production and resets the RPO synchronization cycle in the protection policy

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.dell.com/support/manuals/en-pk/powerstore-25-dae/pwrstr-protect-data/replication?guid=guid-7641aeec-982e-4e4e-85fb-c50f525635dbandlang=en-us


Question 2:

While configuring a Dell switch with PowerStore, what are the recommended license outputs from a show license status command?

A. Type: Term-Based, Status: Active

B. Status: Perpetual, Type: Open

C. Type: Perpetual, Status: Active

D. Status: Term-Based, Type: Unlimited

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.dell.com/support/manuals/en-pk/powerstore/pwrstr-ntwk-cfg/validate-the-top-of-rack-tor-switch-versions-and-licensing?guid=guid-40c30b91-7fb2-4a26-bac7-4ae67c07bdfbandlang=en-us


Question 3:

A protection policy with snapshot and replication rules is applied to a file system. What is the result?

A. Applying the protection policy to the file system fails

B. Replication rules get ignored and only snapshot rules get applied

C. Both replication and snapshot rules get applied

D. Snapshot rules get ignored and only replication rules get applied

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.dell.com/support/manuals/en-pk/powerstore/pwrstr-protect-data/data-protection-in-powerstore?guid=guid-19c6d0e1-fa20-4fb5-9983-61c17abaf21bandlang=en-us


Question 4:

Which IP addresses are required when adding an appliance to the cluster?

A. DNS and NTP

B. Storage and NTP

C. Management and Storage

D. Management and DNS

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.dell.com/support/manuals/en-pk/powerstore/pwrstr-ntwk-plang/ip-address-requirements-for-initial-configuration?guid=guid-cdb61296-b698-47fb-92ce-284f784cbc2dandlang=en-us


Question 5:

What is a way to verify the data path connectivity between a source VNX2 storage system and the PowerStore system when configuring an import session?

A. Examine Fibre Channel zoning

B. Verify host initiators on PowerStore Manager

C. Review Server Manager MPIO properties

D. Use the VNX2 SP ping operation

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Which API does PowerStore use to communicate with ESXi server during vVols provisioning operation?

A. REST

B. SOAP

C. VAAI

D. VASA

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://volumes.blog/2020/05/06/what-is-powerstore-part-4-vvols/


Question 7:

A PowerStore T cluster has 3 appliances. Users are unable to access NAS services. What might be the issue?

A. Master appliance is off-line

B. NAS appliance failover is incorrectly configured

C. Trial license is expired

D. Resource balancer service has failed

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

What are the IP requirements for ICW on PowerStore X and PowerStore T models?

A. PowerStore T requires three storage IP addresses and PowerStore X requires five storage IP addresses

B. PowerStore T requires four management IP addresses and PowerStore X requires six management IP addresses

C. PowerStore T requires five management IP addresses and PowerStore X requires six management IP addresses

D. PowerStore T requires seven storage IP addresses and PowerStore X requires three storage IP addresses

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.dell.com/support/manuals/en-pk/powerstore/pwrstr-ntwk-plang/ip-address-requirements-for-initial-configuration?guid=guid-cdb61296-b698-47fb-92ce-284f784cbc2dandlang=en-us


Question 9:

Which network is used by the PowerStore for communication to the cluster database?

A. inter-node

B. ICM

C. IDN

D. ICD

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.dell.com/support/manuals/en-pk/powerstore-1000t/pwrstr-ntwk-plang/powerstore-t-model-appliance-networks?guid=guid-97a3e988-c1bc-4f51-a445-3af23f19da1b


Question 10:

What does the data import session Pause operation do?

A. Deactivates the host to PowerStore control path

B. Stops the source to PowerStore background copy operation

C. Stops the source to PowerStore cutover operation

D. Deactivates the host to PowerStore data path

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.dell.com/support/manuals/en-pk/powerstore-1000/pwrstr-import/import-workflow?guid=guid-a19dffc3-8def-4a50-a4ed-14650500f567andlang=en-us


Question 11:

What is the logical block size when creating and formatting volumes on PowerStore for Windows hosts?

A. 512 bytes

B. 520 bytes

C. 4096 bytes

D. 64 kilobytes

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.dell.com/support/manuals/en-pk/powerstore/pwrstr-hcg/disk-formatting?guid=guid-27740e37-8432-4241-a3d7-bf18843a94ceandlang=en-us


Question 12:

An administrator receives an alert on a PowerStore Cluster with three appliances:

The appliance A1 is projected to run out of space in 8 days Capacity utilization is above 90 percent

Which tools are available to assist the Administrator with a potential resolution?

A. Thin provision conversion wizard

B. System Optimization

C. Space reclamation wizard

D. Assisted Migration

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://volumes.blog/2020/05/18/what-is-powerstore-part-11-resource-balancer/


Question 13:

A storage administrator has provisioned a 50GB volume and presented it to an application. The application owner has requested that the volume be replicated to a secondary array. Which policy should be assigned to the volume to enable replication?

A. Protection

B. Performance

C. Remote

D. Replication

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

A PowerStore X system is being implemented using Dell EMC S5248F-ON Ethernet switching as data switches.

What is required when configuring the VLT interconnects on the data switches?

A. Assign the switch default route for the VLT traffic

B. Set the VLT connection to the switch default VLAN

C. On each switch, select the switch management port MAC as the VLT MAC

D. Configure the VLT MACs with a matching unique made-up address

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

How many cables are required for minimum support for PowerStore T Front-End storage connectivity?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 4

D. 6

Correct Answer: B