Month: March 2022

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Question 1:

A specialist is responsible for making sure that Unica Campaign flowcharts run successfully. If an error occurs, the specialist needs to be informed by email. Therefore, the specialist creates a batch script which interacts with the mail server and sends an email to the IT department helpdesk to be informed in case problems arise in a Campaign flowchart. Where can the specialist best relate to this script from within the Campaign flowchart? The specialist creates an outbound trigger, invokes the batch script in the trigger, and:

A. assigns a trigger in a mail list or call list process.

B. schedules a trigger to run on a case-by-case basis.

C. uses the eMessage process to send out these emails.

D. assigns it in the Advanced settings section on the Campaign flowchart and has the trigger run on Flowchart Run Error.

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

A table Customer_master contains 1000 customer_ids. A select box was created and all the customer_ids from the table were selected. However, when the select box was run, the output cell contained only a fraction of the total customers. When a test query was performed in the above mentioned select box, all 1000 customers were selected. What could be cause of this issue?

A. Global suppression.

B. The Select process was not configured properly.

C. The table mapping of Customer_master are out-of-date.

D. Incorrect audience level has been chosen for the Customer_master table.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

A user would like to create a 10% holdout control group from a Cell which contains 1000 Audience IDs. Which Unica Campaign flowchart process box is the BEST way to accomplish this?

A. Merge process

B. Sample process

C. Segment process

D. Snapshot process

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

A Unica Campaign has been designed to personalize offers for individuals via dynamic parameterization of offer attributes. Which Campaign system table records the offer(s) received by the individuals?

A. Flowchart Table

B. Contact History Table

C. Response History Table

D. Detailed Contact History Table

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

A Unica Campaign deployment requires Cognos reporting to be configured. As part of configuring the Cognos firewall, which property in the Cognos configuration, other than “Enable CAF (Cognos Application Firewall) Validation” needs to be set?

A. Gateway URI Property

B. Internal Dispatcher URI Property

C. Valid Domains or Hosts Property

D. External Dispatcher URI Property

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Unica Platform needs to be integrated with a Directory Server. What can be done to make this happen?

A. Use the built-in Platform login methods.

B. Use Active Directory or an LDAP solution.

C. Use a Content Server Management solution.

D. Individual customization with Platform is needed.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

The Scheduler is a common scheduling component that Unica applications use. Besides Campaign, which of the following applications can schedule jobs?

A. Unica Optimize and Unica Interact

B. Unica eMessage and Unica Optimize

C. Unica Marketing Operations and Unica Interact

D. Unica eMessage, Unica Optimize, Unica Marketing Operations, and Unica Interact

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

An administrator has installed and configured Unica Platform and Unica Campaign. Due to business procedures in the company, a new security policy is required. Which default roles are created by the new security policy?

A. A Key User Role and an Owner Role.

B. A Folder Owner Role and an Owner Role.

C. An Admin Owner Role and a User Owner Role.

D. A Folder Owner Role and an Object Owner Role.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

A customer wants to use a mapped table in a flowchart which can only be written to and not selected from. What kind of table BEST suits this purpose?

A. A base table.

B. A general table.

C. A dimension table.

D. A mapped table based on a flat file.

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

A user is configuring a response flowchart for campaign where it has collected all its responses and their attributes in a single table for logging to response history. What table methodology would satisfy the above condition?

A. Action Table

B. General Table

C. Dimension Table

D. Base Record Table

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

A user does not want the dashboard to display when Unica Campaign is first opened. Instead, the user simply wants to use the currently displayed All Campaigns page as the home page. How can this be done?

A. A user cannot change the dashboard home page. Only the administrator can.

B. In the Campaign application, go to “Settings” and select “Configuration”. Under the “Campaign” category, click “navigation”.

C. In the Campaign application, go to “Settings” and select “Set current page as home”. The user must have permissions to set the page selectedas home.

D. In the Campaign application, go to “Settings” and select “Set current page as home”. The user does not need any special permission to set anypage selected as home.

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

After an installation, a specialist tries to access the Platform Settings > Configuration part of the Unica GUI and is not able to see it. An error message is also received. The specialist suspects that there are some incorrect settings there which need to be modified. How can the specialist make the modifications to these settings without using the GUI?

A. Use the configTool to accomplish this goal.

B. Modify the Campaign system tables in the database.

C. Access the Web Application server console to make the changes.

D. Change the XML files in the /conf directory and restarting the web application server.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

For Unica Campaign server to be installed as a Windows service, which directory path needs to be included in the user PATH variable in Windows?

A. \bin

B. \conf

C. \install

D. \security

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

In a Unica Campaign deployment there is a requirement to increase the HTTP inactive session timeout from the default 30 minutes to 60 minutes. This can be accomplished by changing the session-timeout parameter in which of the following files?

A. web.xml in the Campaign war file

B. config.xml under /conf

C. jaas.config under /conf

D. campaign_navigation.xml under /conf

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

After the administrator installs Unica Campaign reports pack and selects Analytics > Campaign Analytics, the folder containing the Campaign Cognos Performance reports are not available as an option. However, the reports folders Calendar Reports and Segment Crosstab Reports are available. What must the administrator do to ensure users can also access the Campaign Cognos Performance Reports and Segment Crosstab Reports?

A. Under Unica Settings > Users, go to the cognos_admin user and select “ReportsSystem (IBM Unica Reports)” to add it as a role.

B. Reinstall the Unica Campaign reports pack and check again to ensure that the Campaign Cognos Performance reports is available as anoption under the Performance Reports folder.

C. Under Unica Settings > User Roles and Permissions, drill down from the Campaign node to the Reports node. Ensure that the “Granted” optionhas been selected for at least the Admin Role for Reports.

D. Check the folders under “Campaign Analytics” to ensure the report did not install incorrectly to another folder. Move the Campaign CognosPerformance option to the Performance Reports folder if it is found under another folder.

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

To investigate a problem on a VxRail system, the onsite engineer has to collect the complete set of logs.

Which method will collect all logs at once?

A. Download https://:443/appliance /support-bundle

B. Export vCenter system logs

C. Run/mystic/generateFullLogBundlecommand in VxRail Manager CLI

D. Click “Generate New Log Bundle” in the VxRail Manager GUI

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

A company intends to deploy VxRail with support for GPU cards. Which type of VxRail nodes should be recommended?

A. E Series

B. V Series

C. G Series

D. P Series

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

In a VxRail Stretched Cluster built from eight all-flash nodes, what should be the recommended storage policy to ensure the highest possible protection?

A. Raid-1(Mirroring) FTT=1

B. Raid-1(Mirroring) FTT=2

C. Raid-5/6(Erasure Coding) FTT=1

D. Raid-5/6(Erasure Coding) FTT=2

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

What is a requirement for the Top of Rack (ToR) switches used in a VxRail implementation?

A. MLD Querier

B. EtherChannel

C. IPV4 and IPV6 Multicast

D. LACP

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

What is a consideration for using link aggregation on the Top of Rack (ToR) switch for a VxRail?

A. Should not be used for VxRail node ports, but can be used for uplink and ISL

B. Is not supported on the VxRail ToR switch

C. Can be configured for any connectivity, but are not required

D. Should always be configured for VxRail node ports to allow for failover

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

When adding an S Series node to a Gen 2 VxRail 240F cluster the build fails.

What could be a possible cause of this situation?

A. IP Pool has no more free addresses

B. Hybrid and Flash nodes cannot be mixed in the same cluster

C. Quanta and Dell hardware cannot be mixed in the same cluster

D. Loudmouth process needs to be restarted

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

During a VxRail installation, the deployment fails at 9%. Based on the exhibit, what could be the reason for this failure?

A. Domain name .local is not supported

B. Password field has an extra space

C. vCenter and PSC information is missing

D. Timezone is in an incorrect format

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

When using the RASR method to reset a VxRail node, which boot device is selected?

A. RASRUSB

B. SATADOM

C. IDRAC SD CARD

D. IDSDM

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

A company has a simple, 4 node VxRail cluster. The VxRail is running version 3.5 and utilizes a vSphere standard license. The company has asked for a VxRail software upgrade.

What are the steps for the upgrade?

A. Log in to VxRail Manager, select “Internet Upgrade”, then follow the prompts.

B. Log in to support.emc.com and download the upgrade packages.Next, open VxRail Manager, select “Off-line Upgrade”, then follow the prompts.

C. Place all four nodes into maintenance mode.Next, log in to VxRail Manager, select “Internet Upgrade”, then follow the prompts.

D. Contact Dell EMC support to request the upgrade to the VxRail cluster.

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

The vSAN health check is reporting errors about the stats.db object. What could be a possible cause of this problem?

A. vSAN performance service is not enabled on one of the ESX nodes

B. vSAN health service is disabled

C. There are inaccessible/unhealthy vSANobjects

D. vSAN performance service is not enabled

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Which setting can be changed port-deployment without risking VxRail system failure?

A. Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) may be disabled

B. Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS) automation level

C. VMware HCIA Distributed Switch Traffic Filtering and Marking may be enabled

D. HA reserve capacity (for a 4 node cluster) may be reduced to 15%

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

What is a requirement for Top of Rack (ToR) switch VxRail node ports?

A. Enable Spanning Tree

B. Disable IGMP Snooping

C. Enable IGMP Querier

D. Disable Link Aggregation

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

You have been asked to deploy a single, 4 node VxRail cluster for company. They would like to migrate from their existing vSphere 6.5 environment. They have also asked that vCenter Enhanced linked-mode be supported. Based on best practice, what is the recommended deployment model?

A. Use existing vCenter 6.5 with Embedded PSC

B. Deploy Internal vCenter with External PSC

C. Deploy Internal vCenter with Embedded PSC

D. Use existing vCenter 6.5 with External PSC

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

A VxRail deployment has just been completed, and the performance service is enabled, but the vSAN performance statistics are not available for the cluster or virtual machines. What is the reason for this situation?

A. vSAN performance hot-fix has not been applied

B. Monitoring policy has not been created

C. Performance service has not been manually enabled

D. Data has not been populated

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

You have been asked to install a 7 node VxRail single socket 1 GbE G Series cluster. The company has requested remote KVM support. How many RJ45 cables will be required?

A. 14

B. 21

C. 28

D. 35

Correct Answer: A

https://www.emc.com/collateral/technical-documentation/h15104-vxrail- appliance-techbook.pdf


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Question 1:

Which command revokes ACL-based write access for groups and named users on the file afile?

A. setfacl -x group: * : rx, user:*: rx afile

B. setfacl -x mask: : rx afile

C. setfacl ~m mask: : rx afile

D. setfacl ~m group: * : rx, user:*: rx afile

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

What happens when the command getfattr a file is run while the file afile has no extended attributes set?

A. getfattr prints a warning and exits with a values of 0.

B. getfattr prints a warning and exits with a value of 1.

C. No output is produced and getfattr exits with a value of 0.

D. No outputs is produced and getfattr exits with a value of 1

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

How are SELinux permissions related to standard Linux permissions? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A. SELinux permissions overnde standard Linux permissions.

B. Standard Linux permissions override SELinux permissions.

C. SELinux permissions are verified before standard Linux permissions.

D. SELinux permissions are verified after standard Linux permissions.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 4:

Which of the following are differences between AppArmor and SELinux? (Choose TWO correct answers).

A. AppArmor is implemented in user space only. SELinux is a Linux Kernel Module.

B. AppArmor is less complex and easier to configure than SELinux.

C. AppArmor neither requires nor allows any specific configuration. SELinux must always be manually configured.

D. SELinux stores information in extended file attributes. AppArmor does not maintain file specific information and states.

E. The SELinux configuration is loaded at boot time and cannot be changed later on AppArmor provides user space tools to change its behavior.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 5:

Which of the following types can be specified within the Linux Audit system? (Choose THREE correct answers)

A. Control rules

B. File system rules

C. Network connection rules

D. Console rules

E. System call rules

Correct Answer: ABE


Question 6:

Which of the following sections are allowed within the Kerberos configuration file krb5.conf? (Choose THREE correct answers.)

A. [plugins]

B. [crypto]

C. [domain]

D. [capaths]

E. [realms]

Correct Answer: ADE


Question 7:

Which of the following statements is true about chroot environments?

A. Symbolic links to data outside the chroot path are followed, making files and directories accessible.

B. Hard links to files outside the chroot path are not followed, to increase security.

C. The chroot path needs to contain all data required by the programs running in the chroot environment.

D. Programs are not able to set a chroot path by using a function call, they have to use the command chroot.

E. When using the command chroot, the started command is running in its own namespace and cannot communicate with other processes.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Which of the following commands adds users using SSSD\’s local service?

A. sss_adduser

B. sss_useradd

C. sss_add

D. sss-addlocaluser

E. sss_local_adduser

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Which of the following DNS record types can the command dnssec-signzone add to a zone? (Choose THREE correct answers.)

A. ASlG

B. NSEC

C. NSEC3

D. NSSlG

E. RRSlG

Correct Answer: BCE


Question 10:

Which of the following parameters to openssl s_client specifies the host name to use for TLS Server Name lndication?

A. -tlsname

B. -servername

C. -sniname

D. -vhost

E. -host

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which of the following information, within a DNSSEC- signed zone, is signed by the key signing key?

A. The non-DNSSEC records like A, AAAA or MX.

B. The zone signing key of the zone.

C. The RRSlG records of the zone.

D. The NSEC or NSEC3 records of the zone.

E. The DS records pointing to the zone.

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Which of the following configuration options makes Apache HTTPD require a client certificate for authentication?

A. Limit valid-x509

B. SSLRequestClientCert always

C. Require valid-x509

D. SSLVerifyClient require

E. SSLPolicy valid-client-cert

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Which of the following practices are important for the security of private keys? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A. Private keys should be created on the systems where they will be used and should never leave them.

B. Private keys should be uploaded to public key servers.

C. Private keys should be included in X509 certificates.

D. Private keys should have a sufficient length for the algorithm used for key generation.

E. Private keys should always be stored as plain text files without any encryption.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 14:

Which DNS label points to the DANE information used to secure HTTPS connections to https://www.example.com/?

A. example.com

B. dane.www.example.com

C. soa.example com

D. www.example.com

E. _443_tcp.www example.com

Correct Answer: E


Question 15:

What is the purpose of the program snort-stat?

A. lt displays statistics from the running Snort process.

B. lt returns the status of all configured network devices.

C. lt reports whether the Snort process is still running and processing packets.

D. lt displays the status of all Snort processes.

E. lt reads syslog files containing Snort information and generates port scan statistics.

Correct Answer: E


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Question 1:

When did the initial application of the wireless network begin?

A. During a major war

B. During the Second World War

C. Late 20th century

D. After 2000

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

IEEE is the standard organization responsible for the use of wireless frequencies in the United States.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Which of the following standards organizations is implementing WLAN technology interoperability for WLAN device authentication?

A. WiFi Alliance

B. IEEE

C. IETF

D. FCC

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Which of the following protocols are IEEE 802.11 standards Select 3 Answers)?

A. 802.11a/b/g/n

B. 802.11i

C. 802.1X

D. 802.11s

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 5:

Which of the following standards is WLAN (Select 2 Answers)?

A. 802.11a/b/g/n

B. WPA

C. WPA2

D. 802.11i

Correct Answer: BC


Question 6:

The CAPWAP protocol is a WLAN standard proposed by the IEEE standards organization in April 2009 for communication between AC and thin APs.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which of the following protocols support the 2.4 GHz band (Select 3 Answers)?

A. 802.11a

B. 802.11b

C. 802.11g

D. 802.11n

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 8:

How many channels does China support in the 2.4 GHz band?

A. 11

B. 13

C. 3

D. 5

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Which of the following options is in the 5GHz band supported by China?

A. 5.15~5.25GHz

B. 5.25~5.35GHz

C. 5.725~5.825GHz

D. 5.725~5.850GHz

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

What are the modulation methods (Select 3 Answers) depending on the signal parameters being controlled?

A. amplitude modulation

B. frequency modulation

C. phase modulation

D. modulation

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 11:

Which modulation method does the following picture belong to?

A. amplitude modulation

B. frequency modulation

C. phase modulation

D. modulation

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

What is the name of the first radio communication network based on packet technology?

A. INTERNET

B. ARPANet

C. ALOHNET

D. NSFnet

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

What are the WLAN operating bands (Select 2 Answers)?

A. 2 GHz

B. 5 GHz

C. 5.4 GHz

D. 2.4 GHz

Correct Answer: BD


Question 14:

How many channels can the 2.4 GHz band be divided into?

A. 14

B. 13

C. 11

D. 3

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

What is the distance between the center frequencies of the channels in the 2.4 GHz band?

A. 20 MHz

B. 22 MHz

C. 5 MHz

D. 10 MHz

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

You are the administrator of an ONTAP 9.8 cluster. You have configured an hourly snapshot schedule for all NAS volumes. One of your users accidentally deleted an important spreadsheet file on an SMB share. The file needs to be restored as quickly as possible by the Windows user.

Which statement is correct in this scenario?

A. In Windows Explorer, right-click on the SMB share where the file was deleted, go to previous versions select the file and copy it to the original location.

B. On the cluster CLI, execute the volume snapshot restore-file command with the options to select the SnapShot, path, and restore-path.

C. On the cluster CLI, execute the volume clone create command with the –parent-snapshot option set to the latest Snapshot copy and share the cloned volume as an SMB share, then copy the file back.

D. In ONTAP System Manager, navigate to the volume where the share resides, click on SnapShot copies and restore the latest SnapShot copy.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-netapp-files/azure-netapp-files-managesnapshots


Question 2:

After creating several volumes, you notice that the hosting aggregates immediately show a decrease in available space.

Which volume setting would prevent this outcome?

A. space guarantee set to “volume”

B. space SLO set to “semi-thick”

C. space guarantee set to “none”

D. space SLO set to “thick”

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

You want to prepare your ONTAP cluster and your ESXi cluster to connect NFS datastores over a 10-GbE network using jumbo frames.

In this scenario, which three configurations would accomplish this task? (Choose three.)

A. Enable jumbo frames with an MTU of 1500 for your ESXi hosts

B. Enable jumbo frames with an MTU of 9000 for your ONTAP cluster

C. Enable jumbo frames with an MTU of 1500 for your ONTAP cluster

D. Enable jumbo frames with an MTU of 9000 for your ESXi hosts

E. Enable jumbo frames with an MTU of 9216 for your switches

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 4:

Which two storage efficiency features are enabled by default on AFF systems? (Choose two.)

A. volume-level inline deduplication

B. aggregate-level compression

C. LUN-level compression

D. aggregate-level inline deduplication

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=/com.netapp.doc.dot-cm-vsmg/GUIDC1E3029E-1514-4579-939B-67160E849632.html


Question 5:

When you perform an upgrade using ONTAP System Manager 9.8, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. The images must be manually uploaded to the cluster by using the ONTAP System Manager interface

B. The latest available images will appear in the ONTAP System Manager interface

C. The images will be automatically uploaded to the cluster by using the ONTAP System Manager interface from the NetApp Support site

D. The update history is available within the ONTAP System Manager interface

Correct Answer: BD


Question 6:

Click the Exhibit button.

You have an SVM-DR relationship as shown in the exhibit. You are given a new requirement to use SnapMirror Synchronous (SM-S) for the data volumes in NFS-SVM-01.

In this scenario, which solution is supported to enable SM-S in ONTAP 9.8 software?

A. Set up new SM-S relationships from the FAS2720 to a new destination

B. Set up NetApp Cloud Sync with a cloud broker in AWS to replicate to a new destination

C. Modify the existing SVM-DR policy to use sync mode

D. Set up new SM-S relationships from the AFF A220 to a new destination

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which two types of capacity tiers are supported with FabricPool aggregates in ONTAP 9.8? (Choose two.)

A. StorageGRID Object Storage

B. S3 Object Store

C. SWIFT Object Store

D. NFS Export

Correct Answer: AB


Question 8:

Click the Exhibit button.

A Linux host with the 10.0.1.24 IP address is unable to mount the VOL_A volume using NFSv3. Referring to the exhibit, what is the problem?

A. The volume is in read-only

B. The logical interface does not allow the NFSv3 protocol

C. The host IP address does not match the export policy rule

D. The volume is not mounted in the namespace

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Click the Exhibit button.

After an ONTAP upgrade, you notice that several cluster LIFs are not on their home ports as shown in the exhibit.

Which LIF option would change this outcome?

A. the failover-policy option

B. the data-protocol option

C. the subnet-name option

D. the auto-revert option

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

A customer wants to migrate a series of LUNs from a third-party array to a FAS. In this scenario, which two tools would the customer use? (Choose two.)

A. XCP

B. NKS

C. ADP

D. FLI

Correct Answer: AD

Migrate a series of LUNs from a third-party array to a FAS.


Question 11:

Click the Exhibit button.

A user cannot save a file on an ONTAP SMB share.

Referring to the exhibit, which action allows the user to save the file?

A. Synchronize the ONTAP Cluster time to the Active Directory time

B. Let the user save the file to a writeable location

C. Set the user permission for the share to write

D. Allow the file type *.rtf in the CIFS Server fpolicy

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Your company requires WORM archiving of data on their ONTAP cluster. The data must not be able to be deleted even by an administrator.

Which ONTAP feature fulfills this requirement?

A. SnapVault software

B. SnapMirror software

C. SnapLock Enterprise

D. SnapLock Compliance

Correct Answer: D

Reference: http://doc.agrarix.net/netapp/doc/Archive and Compliance Management% 20Guide.pdf (9)


Question 13:

Click the Exhibit button.

You are caching on-premises ONTAP volumes into the cloud with Cloud Volumes ONTAP as shown in the exhibit.

In this scenario, which two protocols are supported? (Choose two.)

A. NVMe

B. SMB

C. NFS

D. iSCSI

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/us-en/occm/pdfs/sidebar/Manage_Cloud_Volumes_ONTAP.pdf


Question 14:

You have commissioned a new AFF A250 MetroCluster over IP configuration. Your company requires an automatic switchover to the surviving site in case of a site disaster.

What do you need to configure to fulfill this requirement?

A. ONTAP Mediator service

B. cluster failover

C. automated unplanned switchover

D. storage failover

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/us-en/ontap-metrocluster/pdfs/sidebar/ Install_a_MetroCluster_IP_configuration.pdf (3)


Question 15:

Click the Exhibit button.

You have a 2-node NetApp FAS2750 ONTAP cluster. You create a new 20-GB LUN in a new 100-GB volume and write 10 GB of data to the LUN. No storage efficiencies are enabled for the volume or aggregate.

Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. ONTAP reports that the volume is using 10 GB of its containing aggregate

B. ONTAP reports the volume as 20% full

C. ONTAP reports that the volume is using 100 GB of its containing aggregate

D. ONTAP reports the volume as 10% full

Correct Answer: AB


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Question 1:

Company A operates in Country X. Company A maintains a large dataset of historical purchase orders that contains personal data of their customers in the form of full names and telephone numbers. The dataset consists of 5 text files, 1TB each. Currently the dataset resides on-premises due to legal requirements of storing personal data in-country. The research and development department needs to run a clustering algorithm on the dataset and wants to use Elastic Map Reduce service in the closest AWS region. Due to geographic distance, the minimum latency between the on-premises system and the closet AWS region is 200 ms.

Which option allows Company A to do clustering in the AWS Cloud and meet the legal requirement of maintaining personal data in-country?

A. Anonymize the personal data portions of the dataset and transfer the data files into Amazon S3 in the AWS region. Have the EMR cluster read the dataset using EMRFS.

B. Establish a Direct Connect link between the on-premises system and the AWS region to reduce latency. Have the EMR cluster read the data directly from the on-premises storage system over Direct Connect.

C. Encrypt the data files according to encryption standards of Country X and store them on AWS region in Amazon S3. Have the EMR cluster read the dataset using EMRFS.

D. Use AWS Import/Export Snowball device to securely transfer the data to the AWS region and copy the files onto an EBS volume. Have the EMR cluster read the dataset using EMRFS.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

An administrator needs to design a strategy for the schema in a Redshift cluster. The administrator needs to determine the optimal distribution style for the tables in the Redshift schema. In which two circumstances would choosing EVEN distribution be most appropriate? (Choose two.)

A. When the tables are highly denormalized and do NOT participate in frequent joins.

B. When data must be grouped based on a specific key on a defined slice.

C. When data transfer between nodes must be eliminated.

D. When a new table has been loaded and it is unclear how it will be joined to dimension tables.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 3:

A large grocery distributor receives daily depletion reports from the field in the form of gzip archives od CSV files uploaded to Amazon S3. The files range from 500MB to 5GB. These files are processed daily by an EMR job. Recently it has been observed that the file sizes vary, and the EMR jobs take too long. The distributor needs to tune and optimize the data processing workflow with this limited information to improve the performance of the EMR job. Which recommendation should an administrator provide?

A. Reduce the HDFS block size to increase the number of task processors.

B. Use bzip2 or Snappy rather than gzip for the archives.

C. Decompress the gzip archives and store the data as CSV files.

D. Use Avro rather than gzip for the archives.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

A company has several teams of analysts. Each team of analysts has their own cluster. The teams need to run SQL queries using Hive, Spark-SQL, and Presto with Amazon EMR. The company needs to enable a centralized metadata layer to expose the Amazon S3 objects as tables to the analysts.

Which approach meets the requirement for a centralized metadata layer?

A. EMRFS consistent view with a common Amazon DynamoDB table

B. Bootstrap action to change the Hive Metastore to an Amazon RDS database

C. s3distcp with the outputManifest option to generate RDS DDL

D. Naming scheme support with automatic partition discovery from Amazon S3

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

An administrator needs to manage a large catalog of items from various external sellers. The administrator needs to determine if the items should be identified as minimally dangerous, dangerous, or highly dangerous based on their textual

descriptions. The administrator already has some items with the danger attribute, but receives hundreds of new item descriptions every day without such classification.

The administrator has a system that captures dangerous goods reports from customer support team or from user feedback.

What is a cost-effective architecture to solve this issue?

A. Build a set of regular expression rules that are based on the existing examples, and run them on the DynamoDB Streams as every new item description is added to the system.

B. Build a Kinesis Streams process that captures and marks the relevant items in the dangerous goods reports using a Lambda function once more than two reports have been filed.

C. Build a machine learning model to properly classify dangerous goods and run it on the DynamoDB Streams as every new item description is added to the system.

D. Build a machine learning model with binary classification for dangerous goods and run it on the DynamoDB Streams as every new item description is added to the system.

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

A company receives data sets coming from external providers on Amazon S3. Data sets from different providers are dependent on one another. Data sets will arrive at different times and in no particular order. A data architect needs to design a solution that enables the company to do the following:

1.

Rapidly perform cross data set analysis as soon as the data becomes available

2.

Manage dependencies between data sets that arrive at different times

Which architecture strategy offers a scalable and cost-effective solution that meets these requirements?

A. Maintain data dependency information in Amazon RDS for MySQL. Use an AWS Data Pipeline job to load an Amazon EMR Hive table based on task dependencies and event notification triggers in Amazon S3.

B. Maintain data dependency information in an Amazon DynamoDB table. Use Amazon SNS and event notifications to publish data to fleet of Amazon EC2 workers. Once the task dependencies have been resolved, process the data with Amazon EMR.

C. Maintain data dependency information in an Amazon ElastiCache Redis cluster. Use Amazon S3 event notifications to trigger an AWS Lambda function that maps the S3 object to Redis. Once the task dependencies have been resolved, process the data with Amazon EMR.

D. Maintain data dependency information in an Amazon DynamoDB table. Use Amazon S3 event notifications to trigger an AWS Lambda function that maps the S3 object to the task associated with it in DynamoDB. Once all task dependencies have been resolved, process the data with Amazon EMR.

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

A Redshift data warehouse has different user teams that need to query the same table with very different query types. These user teams are experiencing poor performance. Which action improves performance for the user teams in this situation?

A. Create custom table views.

B. Add interleaved sort keys per team.

C. Maintain team-specific copies of the table.

D. Add support for workload management queue hopping.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/redshift/latest/dg/cm-c-implementing-workload-management.html


Question 8:

A company operates an international business served from a single AWS region. The company wants to expand into a new country. The regulator for that country requires the Data Architect to maintain a log of financial transactions in the country within 24 hours of the product transaction. The production application is latency insensitive. The new country contains another AWS region.

What is the most cost-effective way to meet this requirement?

A. Use CloudFormation to replicate the production application to the new region.

B. Use Amazon CloudFront to serve application content locally in the country; Amazon CloudFront logs will satisfy the requirement.

C. Continue to serve customers from the existing region while using Amazon Kinesis to stream transaction data to the regulator.

D. Use Amazon S3 cross-region replication to copy and persist production transaction logs to a bucket in the new country\’s region.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

A social media customer has data from different data sources including RDS running MySQL, Redshift, and Hive on EMR. To support better analysis, the customer needs to be able to analyze data from different data sources and to combine the results.

What is the most cost-effective solution to meet these requirements?

A. Load all data from a different database/warehouse to S3. Use Redshift COPY command to copy data to Redshift for analysis.

B. Install Presto on the EMR cluster where Hive sits. Configure MySQL and PostgreSQL connector to select from different data sources in a single query.

C. Spin up an Elasticsearch cluster. Load data from all three data sources and use Kibana to analyze.

D. Write a program running on a separate EC2 instance to run queries to three different systems. Aggregate the results after getting the responses from all three systems.

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

An Amazon EMR cluster using EMRFS has access to petabytes of data on Amazon S3, originating from multiple unique data sources. The customer needs to query common fields across some of the data sets to be able to perform interactive joins and then display results quickly.

Which technology is most appropriate to enable this capability?

A. Presto

B. MicroStrategy

C. Pig

D. R Studio

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

A game company needs to properly scale its game application, which is backed by DynamoDB. Amazon Redshift has the past two years of historical data. Game traffic varies throughout the year based on various factors such as season, movie release, and holiday season. An administrator needs to calculate how much read and write throughput should be provisioned for DynamoDB table for each week in advance.

How should the administrator accomplish this task?

A. Feed the data into Amazon Machine Learning and build a regression model.

B. Feed the data into Spark Mlib and build a random forest modest.

C. Feed the data into Apache Mahout and build a multi-classification model.

D. Feed the data into Amazon Machine Learning and build a binary classification model.

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

A large oil and gas company needs to provide near real-time alerts when peak thresholds are exceeded in its pipeline system. The company has developed a system to capture pipeline metrics such as flow rate, pressure, and temperature using millions of sensors. The sensors deliver to AWS IoT.

What is a cost-effective way to provide near real-time alerts on the pipeline metrics?

A. Create an AWS IoT rule to generate an Amazon SNS notification.

B. Store the data points in an Amazon DynamoDB table and poll if for peak metrics data from an Amazon EC2 application.

C. Create an Amazon Machine Learning model and invoke it with AWS Lambda.

D. Use Amazon Kinesis Streams and a KCL-based application deployed on AWS Elastic Beanstalk.

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

A company is using Amazon Machine Learning as part of a medical software application. The application will predict the most likely blood type for a patient based on a variety of other clinical tests that are available when blood type knowledge

is unavailable.

What is the appropriate model choice and target attribute combination for this problem?

A. Multi-class classification model with a categorical target attribute.

B. Regression model with a numeric target attribute.

C. Binary Classification with a categorical target attribute.

D. K-Nearest Neighbors model with a multi-class target attribute.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

A data engineer is running a DWH on a 25-node Redshift cluster of a SaaS service. The data engineer needs to build a dashboard that will be used by customers. Five big customers represent 80% of usage, and there is a long tail of dozens of smaller customers. The data engineer has selected the dashboarding tool.

How should the data engineer make sure that the larger customer workloads do NOT interfere with the smaller customer workloads?

A. Apply query filters based on customer-id that can NOT be changed by the user and apply distribution keys on customer-id.

B. Place the largest customers into a single user group with a dedicated query queue and place the rest of the customers into a different query queue.

C. Push aggregations into an RDS for Aurora instance. Connect the dashboard application to Aurora rather than Redshift for faster queries.

D. Route the largest customers to a dedicated Redshift cluster. Raise the concurrency of the multi-tenant Redshift cluster to accommodate the remaining customers.

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

An online photo album app has a key design feature to support multiple screens (e.g, desktop, mobile phone, and tablet) with high-quality displays. Multiple versions of the image must be saved in different resolutions and layouts. The image-processing Java program takes an average of five seconds per upload, depending on the image size and format. Each image upload captures the following image metadata: user, album, photo label, upload timestamp. The app should support the following requirements:

1.

Hundreds of user image uploads per second

2.

Maximum image upload size of 10 MB

3.

Maximum image metadata size of 1 KB

4.

Image displayed in optimized resolution in all supported screens no later than one minute after image upload Which strategy should be used to meet these requirements?

A. Write images and metadata to Amazon Kinesis. Use a Kinesis Client Library (KCL) application to run the image processing and save the image output to Amazon S3 and metadata to the app repository DB.

B. Write image and metadata RDS with BLOB data type. Use AWS Data Pipeline to run the image processing and save the image output to Amazon S3 and metadata to the app repository DB.

C. Upload image with metadata to Amazon S3, use Lambda function to run the image processing and save the images output to Amazon S3 and metadata to the app repository DB.

D. Write image and metadata to Amazon Kinesis. Use Amazon Elastic MapReduce (EMR) with Spark Streaming to run image processing and save the images output to Amazon S3 and metadata to app repository DB.

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

A financial services company needs to aggregate daily stock trade data from the exchanges into a data store. The company requires that data be streamed directly into the data store, but also occasionally allows data to be modified using SQL. The solution should integrate complex, analytic queries running with minimal latency. The solution must provide a business intelligence dashboard that enables viewing of the top contributors to anomalies in stock prices.

Which solution meets the company\’s requirements?

A. Use Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to stream data to Amazon S3. Use Amazon Athena as a data source for Amazon QuickSight to create a business intelligence dashboard.

B. Use Amazon Kinesis Data Streams to stream data to Amazon Redshift. Use Amazon Redshift as a data source for Amazon QuickSight to create a business intelligence dashboard.

C. Use Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to stream data to Amazon Redshift. Use Amazon Redshift as a data source for Amazon QuickSight to create a business intelligence dashboard.

D. Use Amazon Kinesis Data Streams to stream data to Amazon S3. Use Amazon Athena as a data source for Amazon QuickSight to create a business intelligence dashboard.

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

A financial company hosts a data lake in Amazon S3 and a data warehouse on an Amazon Redshift cluster. The company uses Amazon QuickSight to build dashboards and wants to secure access from its on-premises Active Directory to Amazon QuickSight.

How should the data be secured?

A. Use an Active Directory connector and single sign-on (SSO) in a corporate network environment.

B. Use a VPC endpoint to connect to Amazon S3 from Amazon QuickSight and an IAM role to authenticate Amazon Redshift.

C. Establish a secure connection by creating an S3 endpoint to connect Amazon QuickSight and a VPC endpoint to connect to Amazon Redshift.

D. Place Amazon QuickSight and Amazon Redshift in the security group and use an Amazon S3 endpoint to connect Amazon QuickSight to Amazon S3.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

A real estate company has a mission-critical application using Apache HBase in Amazon EMR. Amazon EMR is configured with a single master node. The company has over 5 TB of data stored on an Hadoop Distributed File System (HDFS). The company wants a cost-effective solution to make its HBase data highly available.

Which architectural pattern meets company\’s requirements?

A. Use Spot Instances for core and task nodes and a Reserved Instance for the EMR master node. Configure the EMR cluster with multiple master nodes. Schedule automated snapshots using Amazon EventBridge.

B. Store the data on an EMR File System (EMRFS) instead of HDFS. Enable EMRFS consistent view. Create an EMR HBase cluster with multiple master nodes. Point the HBase root directory to an Amazon S3 bucket.

C. Store the data on an EMR File System (EMRFS) instead of HDFS and enable EMRFS consistent view. Run two separate EMR clusters in two different Availability Zones. Point both clusters to the same HBase root directory in the same Amazon S3 bucket.

D. Store the data on an EMR File System (EMRFS) instead of HDFS and enable EMRFS consistent view. Create a primary EMR HBase cluster with multiple master nodes. Create a secondary EMR HBase read-replica cluster in a separate Availability Zone. Point both clusters to the same HBase root directory in the same Amazon S3 bucket.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/emr/latest/ReleaseGuide/emr-hbase-s3.html


Question 4:

A software company hosts an application on AWS, and new features are released weekly. As part of the application testing process, a solution must be developed that analyzes logs from each Amazon EC2 instance to ensure that the application is working as expected after each deployment. The collection and analysis solution should be highly available with the ability to display new information with minimal delays.

Which method should the company use to collect and analyze the logs?

A. Enable detailed monitoring on Amazon EC2, use Amazon CloudWatch agent to store logs in Amazon S3, and use Amazon Athena for fast, interactive log analytics.

B. Use the Amazon Kinesis Producer Library (KPL) agent on Amazon EC2 to collect and send data to Kinesis Data Streams to further push the data to Amazon OpenSearch Service (Amazon Elasticsearch Service) and visualize using Amazon QuickSight.

C. Use the Amazon Kinesis Producer Library (KPL) agent on Amazon EC2 to collect and send data to Kinesis Data Firehose to further push the data to Amazon OpenSearch Service (Amazon Elasticsearch Service) and OpenSearch Dashboards (Kibana).

D. Use Amazon CloudWatch subscriptions to get access to a real-time feed of logs and have the logs delivered to Amazon Kinesis Data Streams to further push the data to Amazon OpenSearch Service (Amazon Elasticsearch Service) and OpenSearch Dashboards (Kibana).

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonCloudWatch/latest/logs/Subscriptions.html


Question 5:

A data analyst is using AWS Glue to organize, cleanse, validate, and format a 200 GB dataset. The data analyst triggered the job to run with the Standard worker type. After 3 hours, the AWS Glue job status is still RUNNING. Logs from the job run show no error codes. The data analyst wants to improve the job execution time without overprovisioning.

Which actions should the data analyst take?

A. Enable job bookmarks in AWS Glue to estimate the number of data processing units (DPUs). Based on the profiled metrics, increase the value of the executor-cores job parameter.

B. Enable job metrics in AWS Glue to estimate the number of data processing units (DPUs). Based on the profiled metrics, increase the value of the maximum capacity job parameter.

C. Enable job metrics in AWS Glue to estimate the number of data processing units (DPUs). Based on the profiled metrics, increase the value of the spark.yarn.executor.memoryOverhead job parameter.

D. Enable job bookmarks in AWS Glue to estimate the number of data processing units (DPUs). Based on the profiled metrics, increase the value of the num-executors job parameter.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/glue/latest/dg/monitor-debug-capacity.html


Question 6:

A company has a business unit uploading .csv files to an Amazon S3 bucket. The company\’s data platform team has set up an AWS Glue crawler to do discovery, and create tables and schemas. An AWS Glue job writes processed data from the created tables to an Amazon Redshift database. The AWS Glue job handles column mapping and creating the Amazon Redshift table appropriately. When the AWS Glue job is rerun for any reason in a day, duplicate records are introduced into the Amazon Redshift table.

Which solution will update the Redshift table without duplicates when jobs are rerun?

A. Modify the AWS Glue job to copy the rows into a staging table. Add SQL commands to replace the existing rows in the main table as postactions in the DynamicFrameWriter class.

B. Load the previously inserted data into a MySQL database in the AWS Glue job. Perform an upsert operation in MySQL, and copy the results to the Amazon Redshift table.

C. Use Apache Spark\’s DataFrame dropDuplicates() API to eliminate duplicates and then write the data to Amazon Redshift.

D. Use the AWS Glue ResolveChoice built-in transform to select the most recent value of the column.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

A streaming application is reading data from Amazon Kinesis Data Streams and immediately writing the data to an Amazon S3 bucket every 10 seconds. The application is reading data from hundreds of shards. The batch interval cannot be changed due to a separate requirement. The data is being accessed by Amazon Athena. Users are seeing degradation in query performance as time progresses.

Which action can help improve query performance?

A. Merge the files in Amazon S3 to form larger files.

B. Increase the number of shards in Kinesis Data Streams.

C. Add more memory and CPU capacity to the streaming application.

D. Write the files to multiple S3 buckets.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

A company uses Amazon OpenSearch Service (Amazon Elasticsearch Service) to store and analyze its website clickstream data. The company ingests 1 TB of data daily using Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose and stores one day\’s worth of

data in an Amazon ES cluster.

The company has very slow query performance on the Amazon ES index and occasionally sees errors from Kinesis Data Firehose when attempting to write to the index. The Amazon ES cluster has 10 nodes running a single index and 3

dedicated master nodes. Each data node has 1.5 TB of Amazon EBS storage attached and the cluster is configured with 1,000 shards. Occasionally, JVMMemoryPressure errors are found in the cluster logs.

Which solution will improve the performance of Amazon ES?

A. Increase the memory of the Amazon ES master nodes.

B. Decrease the number of Amazon ES data nodes.

C. Decrease the number of Amazon ES shards for the index.

D. Increase the number of Amazon ES shards for the index.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

A manufacturing company has been collecting IoT sensor data from devices on its factory floor for a year and is storing the data in Amazon Redshift for daily analysis. A data analyst has determined that, at an expected ingestion rate of about 2 TB per day, the cluster will be undersized in less than 4 months. A long-term solution is needed. The data analyst has indicated that most queries only reference the most recent 13 months of data, yet there are also quarterly reports that need to query all the data generated from the past 7 years. The chief technology officer (CTO) is concerned about the costs, administrative effort, and performance of a long-term solution.

Which solution should the data analyst use to meet these requirements?

A. Create a daily job in AWS Glue to UNLOAD records older than 13 months to Amazon S3 and delete those records from Amazon Redshift. Create an external table in Amazon Redshift to point to the S3 location. Use Amazon Redshift Spectrum to join to data that is older than 13 months.

B. Take a snapshot of the Amazon Redshift cluster. Restore the cluster to a new cluster using dense storage nodes with additional storage capacity.

C. Execute a CREATE TABLE AS SELECT (CTAS) statement to move records that are older than 13 months to quarterly partitioned data in Amazon Redshift Spectrum backed by Amazon S3.

D. Unload all the tables in Amazon Redshift to an Amazon S3 bucket using S3 Intelligent-Tiering. Use AWS Glue to crawl the S3 bucket location to create external tables in an AWS Glue Data Catalog. Create an Amazon EMR cluster using Auto Scaling for any daily analytics needs, and use Amazon Athena for the quarterly reports, with both using the same AWS Glue Data Catalog.

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

An insurance company has raw data in JSON format that is sent without a predefined schedule through an Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose delivery stream to an Amazon S3 bucket. An AWS Glue crawler is scheduled to run every 8 hours to update the schema in the data catalog of the tables stored in the S3 bucket. Data analysts analyze the data using Apache Spark SQL on Amazon EMR set up with AWS Glue Data Catalog as the metastore. Data analysts say that, occasionally, the data they receive is stale. A data engineer needs to provide access to the most up-to-date data.

Which solution meets these requirements?

A. Create an external schema based on the AWS Glue Data Catalog on the existing Amazon Redshift cluster to query new data in Amazon S3 with Amazon Redshift Spectrum.

B. Use Amazon CloudWatch Events with the rate (1 hour) expression to execute the AWS Glue crawler every hour.

C. Using the AWS CLI, modify the execution schedule of the AWS Glue crawler from 8 hours to 1 minute.

D. Run the AWS Glue crawler from an AWS Lambda function triggered by an S3:ObjectCreated:* event notification on the S3 bucket.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

A company that produces network devices has millions of users. Data is collected from the devices on an hourly basis and stored in an Amazon S3 data lake.

The company runs analyses on the last 24 hours of data flow logs for abnormality detection and to troubleshoot and resolve user issues. The company also analyzes historical logs dating back 2 years to discover patterns and look for improvement opportunities.

The data flow logs contain many metrics, such as date, timestamp, source IP, and target IP. There are about 10 billion events every day.

How should this data be stored for optimal performance?

A. In Apache ORC partitioned by date and sorted by source IP

B. In compressed .csv partitioned by date and sorted by source IP

C. In Apache Parquet partitioned by source IP and sorted by date

D. In compressed nested JSON partitioned by source IP and sorted by date

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

A banking company is currently using an Amazon Redshift cluster with dense storage (DS) nodes to store sensitive data. An audit found that the cluster is unencrypted. Compliance requirements state that a database with sensitive data must be encrypted through a hardware security module (HSM) with automated key rotation.

Which combination of steps is required to achieve compliance? (Choose two.)

A. Set up a trusted connection with HSM using a client and server certificate with automatic key rotation.

B. Modify the cluster with an HSM encryption option and automatic key rotation.

C. Create a new HSM-encrypted Amazon Redshift cluster and migrate the data to the new cluster.

D. Enable HSM with key rotation through the AWS CLI.

E. Enable Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman Ephemeral (ECDHE) encryption in the HSM.

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/redshift/latest/mgmt/working-with-db-encryption.html


Question 13:

A company is planning to do a proof of concept for a machine learning (ML) project using Amazon SageMaker with a subset of existing on-premises data hosted in the company\’s 3 TB data warehouse. For part of the project, AWS Direct Connect is established and tested. To prepare the data for ML, data analysts are performing data curation. The data analysts want to perform multiple step, including mapping, dropping null fields, resolving choice, and splitting fields. The company needs the fastest solution to curate the data for this project.

Which solution meets these requirements?

A. Ingest data into Amazon S3 using AWS DataSync and use Apache Spark scrips to curate the data in an Amazon EMR cluster. Store the curated data in Amazon S3 for ML processing.

B. Create custom ETL jobs on-premises to curate the data. Use AWS DMS to ingest data into Amazon S3 for ML processing.

C. Ingest data into Amazon S3 using AWS DMS. Use AWS Glue to perform data curation and store the data in Amazon S3 for ML processing.

D. Take a full backup of the data store and ship the backup files using AWS Snowball. Upload Snowball data into Amazon S3 and schedule data curation jobs using AWS Batch to prepare the data for ML.

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

A US-based sneaker retail company launched its global website. All the transaction data is stored in Amazon RDS and curated historic transaction data is stored in Amazon Redshift in the us-east-1 Region. The business intelligence (BI) team wants to enhance the user experience by providing a dashboard for sneaker trends.

The BI team decides to use Amazon QuickSight to render the website dashboards. During development, a team in Japan provisioned Amazon QuickSight in ap-northeast-1. The team is having difficulty connecting Amazon QuickSight from ap-northeast-1 to Amazon Redshift in us-east-1.

Which solution will solve this issue and meet the requirements?

A. In the Amazon Redshift console, choose to configure cross-Region snapshots and set the destination Region as ap-northeast-1. Restore the Amazon Redshift Cluster from the snapshot and connect to Amazon QuickSight launched in apnortheast-1.

B. Create a VPC endpoint from the Amazon QuickSight VPC to the Amazon Redshift VPC so Amazon QuickSight can access data from Amazon Redshift.

C. Create an Amazon Redshift endpoint connection string with Region information in the string and use this connection string in Amazon QuickSight to connect to Amazon Redshift.

D. Create a new security group for Amazon Redshift in us-east-1 with an inbound rule authorizing access from the appropriate IP address range for the Amazon QuickSight servers in ap-northeast-1.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

An airline has .csv-formatted data stored in Amazon S3 with an AWS Glue Data Catalog. Data analysts want to join this data with call center data stored in Amazon Redshift as part of a dally batch process. The Amazon Redshift cluster is already under a heavy load. The solution must be managed, serverless, well-functioning, and minimize the load on the existing Amazon Redshift cluster. The solution should also require minimal effort and development activity.

Which solution meets these requirements?

A. Unload the call center data from Amazon Redshift to Amazon S3 using an AWS Lambda function. Perform the join with AWS Glue ETL scripts.

B. Export the call center data from Amazon Redshift using a Python shell in AWS Glue. Perform the join with AWS Glue ETL scripts.

C. Create an external table using Amazon Redshift Spectrum for the call center data and perform the join with Amazon Redshift.

D. Export the call center data from Amazon Redshift to Amazon EMR using Apache Sqoop. Perform the join with Apache Hive.

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

In DOS and Windows, how many bytes are in one FAT directory entry?

A. 16

B. 8

C. 32

D. Variable

E. 64

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

EnCase is able to read and examine which of the following file systems?

A. HFS

B. FAT

C. NTFS

D. EXT3

Correct Answer: ABCD


Question 3:

The following GREP expression was typed in exactly as shown. Choose the answer(s) that would result. [\x00-\x05]\x00\x00\x00? andgt;?[?[@?[?[?[

A. 00 00 00 01 FF FF BA

B. FF 00 00 00 00 FF BA

C. 04 00 00 00 FF FF BA

D. 04 06 00 00 00 FF FF BA

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

By default, what color does EnCase use for the contents of a logical file?

A. Red

B. Red on black

C. Black

D. Black on red

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Hash libraries are commonly used to:

A. Compare a file header to a file extension.

B. Compare one hash set with another hash set.

C. Identify files that are already known to the user.

D. Verify the evidence file.

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

What are the EnCase configuration .ini files used for?

A. Storing information that will be available to EnCase each time it is opened, regardless of the active case(s).

B. Storing the results of a signature analysis.

C. Storing pointers to acquired evidence.

D. Storing information that is specific to a particular case.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

The signature table data is found in which of the following files?

A. The case file

B. All of the above

C. The configuration FileSignatures.ini file

D. The evidence file

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

A restored floppy diskette will have the same hash value as the original diskette.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Select the appropriate name for the highlighted area of the binary numbers.

A. Nibble

B. Byte

C. Dword

D. Bit

E. Word

Correct Answer: E


Question 10:

The boot partition table found at the beginning of a hard drive is located in what sector?

A. Master boot record

B. Volume boot sector

C. Master file table

D. Volume boot record

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

The following keyword was typed in exactly as shown. Choose the answer(s) that would result. All search criteria have default settings. credit card

A. Credit Card

B. credit card

C. Card

D. Credit

Correct Answer: AB


Question 12:

What information should be obtained from the BIOS during computer forensic investigations?

A. The date and time

B. The video caching information

C. The port assigned to the serial port

D. The boot sequence

Correct Answer: AD


Question 13:

A suspect typed a file on his computer and saved it to a floppy diskette. The filename was MyNote.txt. You receive the floppy and the suspect computer. The suspect denies that the floppy disk belongs to him. You search the suspect computer and locate only the suspect computer. The suspect denies that the floppy disk belongs to him. You search the suspect computer and locate only the filename within a .LNK file. The .LNK file is located in the folder C:\Windows\Recent. How you would use the .LNK file to establish a connection between the file on the floppy diskette and the suspect computer connection between the file on the floppy diskette and the suspect computer?

A. The file signature found in the .LNK file

B. The dates and time of the file found in the .LNK file, at file offset 28

C. Both a and b

D. The full path of the file, found in the .LNK file

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

When undeleting a file in the FAT file system, EnCase will check the to see if it has already been overwritten.

A. directory entry

B. data on the hard drive

C. deletion table

D. FAT

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

During the power-up sequence, which of the following happens first?

A. The BIOS on an add-in card is executed.

B. The boot sector is located on the hard drive.

C. The ower On Self-Test.? 7KH ? RZHU2Q6HOI7HVW

D. The floppy drive is checked for a diskette.

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

In order to cover some of the gap between FFS Medicare coverage and the actual cost of services, beneficiaries often rely on Medicare supplements. Which of the following statements about Medicare supplements is correct?

A. The initial ten (A-J) Medigap policies offer a basic benefit package that includes coverage for Medicare Part A and Medicare Part B coinsurance.

B. Each insurance company selling Medigap must sell all the different Medigap policies.

C. Medicare SELECT is a Medicare supplement that uses a preferred provider organization (PPO) to supplement Medicare Part A coverage.

D. Medigap benefits vary by plan type (A through L), and are not uniform nationally.

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

From the following answer choices, choose the description of the ethical principle that best corresponds to the term Beneficence

A. Health plans and their providers are obligated not to harm their members

B. Health plans and their providers should treat each member in a manner that respects the member\’s goals and values, and they also have a duty to promote the good of the members as a group

C. Health plans and their providers should allocate resources in a way that fairly distributes benefits and burdens among the members

D. Health plans and their providers have a duty to respect the right of their members to make decisions about the course of their lives

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Dr. Julia Phram is a cardiologist under contract to Holcomb HMO, Inc., a typical closed- panel plan. The following statements are about this situation. Select the answer choice containing the correct statement.

A. All members of Holcomb HMO must select Dr. Phram as their primary care physician (PCP).

B. Any physician who meets Holcomb\’s standards of care is eligible to contract with Holcomb HMO as a provider.

C. Dr. Phram is either an employee of Holcomb HMO or belongs to a group of physicians that has contracted with Holcomb HMO

D. Holcomb HMO plan members may self-refer to Dr. Phram at full benefits without first obtaining a referral from their PCPs.

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

As part of its quality management program, the Lyric Health Plan regularly compares its practices and services with those of its most successful competitor. When Lyric concludes that its competitor\’s practices or services are better than its own, Lyric im

A. Benchmarking.

B. Standard of care.

C. An adverse event.

D. Case-mix adjustment.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Ed Murray is a claims analyst for a managed care plan that provides a higher level of benefits for services received in-network than for services received out-of-network. Whenever Mr. Murray receives a health claim from a plan member, he reviews the claim

A. A, B, C, and D

B. A and C only

C. A, B, and D only

D. B, C, and D only

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

During an open enrollment period in 1997, Amy Hadek enrolled through her employer for group health coverage with the Owl Health Plan, a federally qualified HMO. At the time of her enrollment, Ms. Hadek had three pre-existing medical conditions: angina, fo

A. the angina, the high blood pressure, and the broken ankle

B. the angina and the high blood pressure only

C. none of these conditions D. the broken ankle only

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

A physician-hospital organization (PHO) may be classified as an open PHO or a closed PHO. With respect to a closed PHO, it is correct to say that

A. the specialists in the PHO are typically compensated on a capitation basis

B. the specialists in the PHO are typically compensated on a capitation basis

C. it typically limits the number of specialists by type of specialty

D. it is available to a hospital\’s entire eligible medical staff

E. physician membership in the PHO is limited to PCPs

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

All CDHP products provide federal tax advantages while allowing consumers to save money for their healthcare.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Ed O\’Brien has both Medicare Part A and Part B coverage. He also has coverage under a PBM plan that uses a closed formulary to manage the cost and use of pharmaceuticals. Recently, Mr. O\’Brien was hospitalized for an aneurysm. Later, he was transferred by

A. Confinement in the extended-care facility after his hospitalization.

B. Transportation by ambulance from the hospital to the extended-care facility.

C. Physicians\’ professional services while he was hospitalized.

D. physicians\’ professional services while he was at the extended-care facility.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

In accounting terminology, the items of value that a company owns–such as cash, cash equivalents, and receivables–are generally known as the company\’s

A. revenue

B. net income

C. surplus

D. assets

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

In order to help review its institutional utilization rates, the Sahalee Medical Group, a health plan, uses the standard formula to calculate hospital bed days per 1,000 plan members for the month to date (MTD). On April 20, Sahalee used the following inf

A. 67

B. 274

C. 365

D. 1,000

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

In certain situations, a health plan can use the results of utilization review to intervene, if necessary, to alter the course of a plan member\’s medical care.

A. Such intervention can be based on the results of

B. Prospective review

C. Concurrent review

A. A, B, and C

B. A and B only

C. A and C only

D. B only

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Identify the CORRECT statement(s):

(A)

Smaller the group, the more likely it is that the group will experience losses similar to the average rate of loss that was predicted.

(B)

Gender of the group\’s participants has no effect on the likelihood of loss.

A.

All of the listed options

B.

B and C

C.

None of the listed options

D.

A and C

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Beginning in the early 1980s, several factors contributed to increased demand for behavioral healthcare services. These factors included

A. increased stress on individuals and families

B. increased availability of behavioral healthcare services

C. greater awareness and acceptance of behavioral healthcare issues

D. all of the above

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

In assessing the potential degree of risk represented by a proposed insured, a health underwriter considers the factor of anti selection. Anti selection can correctly be defined as the

A. inability of a proposed insured to share with the insurer the financial risks of healthcare coverage

B. possibility that a proposed insured will profit from an illness by receiving benefits that exceed the total amount of his or her eligible medical expenses

C. inability of a proposed insured to provide sufficient evidence that proves he or she is an insurable risk

D. tendency of people who have a greater-than-average likelihood of loss to apply for or continue insurance protection to a greater extent than people who have an average or less than average likelihood of the same loss

Correct Answer: D