Month: January 2022

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Question 1:

What can help expose problems with script logic or validity by simulating the execution of a script?

A. Alarm and Trace Configuration

B. debug session

C. script validation

D. script refresh

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

What is the maximum number of agents supported on a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express deployment?

A. 10 agents

B. 50 agents

C. 100 agents

D. 300 agents

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

A preview outbound dialer uses which source and destination resources?

A. a CTI port to the customer

B. the ACD line of the agent to the customer

C. the personal line of the agent to the customer

D. a CTI port to the agent, then redirected to the customer

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

You are designing a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express system with four requirements:

250 configured agents 150 agents maximum logged in at any given time 30 agents able to make outbound calls 20 agents able to answer emails

How many premium seats should be purchased?

A. 150 seats

B. 180 seats

C. 200 seats

D. 250 seats

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

In Cisco Unified CCX Administration, what is created on the Communications Manager when you add a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Telephony group?

A. CTI Ports

B. CTI Route Point

C. Cisco Unified CCX Call Control Group

D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Call Control Group

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

An organization wants to collect an account number from a customer via IVR prompting. Then, using a keystroke macro, the customer wants to insert the account number into the account the CRM desktop application, executing a database lookup from the CRM Database server to retrieve the customer record. Assuming the organization wants the lowest cost solution, what product does this organization need for this capability?

A. Cisco Unified CCX Standard

B. Cisco Unified CCX Enhanced

C. Cisco Unified CCX Premium

D. Cisco Unified CCX Enterprise

E. Cisco Unified IP IVR

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which two features are added when upgrading from Cisco Unified CCX Standard to Enhanced? (Choose two.)

A. Agent Routing

B. Historical Reporting

C. Conditional Routing

D. Priority Queuing

Correct Answer: AD


Question 8:

The Cisco Unified CCX license MAC is generated based on which three items? (Choose three.)

A. hostname

B. IP address

C. gateway address

D. physical MAC

E. Cisco Unified CCX version

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 9:

Which three tasks can an agent perform using email? (Choose three.)

A. save the response as a draft

B. send the response to the supervisor for review

C. transfer the email to another CSQ

D. transfer the email to another agent

E. mark the email as urgent

F. mark the email as junk

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 10:

What is the maximum number of agents that can be supported by Cisco Unified CCX 8.0 when deployed with Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A. 50

B. 150

C. 300

D. 400

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Which tool is used to estimate the hardware server resources that are required for a Cisco Unified CCX deployment?

A. IPC Resource Calculator

B. CTI Port Calculator

C. Cisco Unified Communications Sizing Tool

D. Cisco Unified CCX Applications Administration

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

How many languages can be installed for the Cisco Agent Desktop (CAD) and the Cisco Supervisor Desktop (CSD)?

A. one language for both the CAD and the CSD

B. one language for the CAD and a different language for the CSD

C. two languages for the CAD and one language for the CSD

D. two languages for both the CAD and the CSD

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Which statement is true about the default script field when adding an application?

A. When a caller does not enter a choice in a Menu step, it will execute the default script.

B. Any problems running the configured script will cause the default script to be executed.

C. When the caller enters a digit in the Menu step that is not defined, the default script will be executed.

D. When the caller enters a digit that is not checked in the filter of the Get Digit String step, the default script will be executed.

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

If the Call Redirect step sends a caller to a device that does not exist in the CallManager, which branch of the step is executed?

A. Busy

B. Invalid

C. Successful

D. Unsuccessful

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

How can you configure the Prompt step to play different prompts following subsequent timeouts or retries?

A. Configure it as a Generated Prompt.

B. Configure it as a Random Container Prompt.

C. Configure it as an Escalating Container Prompt.

D. Configure it as a Concatenated Container Prompt.

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

You need to design a data warehouse schema to support a multidimensional cube. The fact table will contain multiple columns representing order dates, shipping dates, and billing dates. The cube will contain a measure group based on the fact table.

What is the best design to achieve the goalMore than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.

A. In the database, create a time table for each date column in the fact table. From the data source view, join each date column in the fact table to the corresponding time table. Create dimensions for each time table.

B. In the database, create a time table containing a column that corresponds to each date column in the fact table. From the data source view, join each date column in the fact table to the corresponding column in the time table. Create a dimension for the time table.

C. In the database, create a time table that uses an integer primary key and a datetime column. Create a dimension based on the time table. From the Cube Designer, use the Dimension Usage tab to define a relationship between the measure group date columns and the datetime column of the time dimension.

D. In the database, create a time table that uses an integer primary key and a datetime column. Create a dimension based on the time table. From the Cube Designer, use the Dimension Usage tab to define a relationship between the measure group date columns and the key column of the time dimension.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

You administer a SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) instance in native mode.

You need to assign a predefined role that meets the following requirements:

Members of the role must be able to update shared data sources. Members of the role must not be able to consume reports or manage subscriptions.

The role must provide only the minimum permissions required.

Which role should you assign(More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)

A. The Content Manager role

B. The Read and Process role

C. The Publisher role

D. The Browser role

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

A company runs SQL Server Database Engine and SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) in native mode. Reports are based on data that is cached in multiple shared datasets. Source data is purged each day at midnight for regulatory

compliance purposes. The shared datasets may continue to cache data that should not be used in reports. Shared report schedules are often paused during nightly server maintenance windows.

Reports must not return purged data.

You need to create a fully automated solution to ensure that reports do not deliver purged data.

What should you do(More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)

A. Create a shared schedule. Configure the datasets to expire on the shared schedule.

B. Write a script that calls the flushcache method to clear individual items from the SSRS cache. Create a SQL Server Agent job that runs rs.exe with the script as an input file, and schedule the job to run every day after the purge process completes.

C. Create a SQL Server Agent job that uses a Transact-SQL (T-SQL) step to delete the data from the dbo.ExecutionCache table in the ReportServerTempDB database. Schedule the job to run every day after the purge process completes.

D. Republish the cached datasets by using SQL Server Data Tools.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Your network contains the following components:

Microsoft SharePoint Server 2010

SQL Server 2008 Service Pack 2 (SP2)

SQL Server 2008 Service Pack 1 (SP1) in Reporting Services Native Mode

You need to recommend a solution to upgrade the network to SQL Server 2014.

The solution must meet the following requirements:

Minimize the amount of time that SharePoint services are unavailable. Deploy the upgraded Reporting Services instance in Reporting Services SharePoint Integrated Mode.

You upgrade the Database Engine to SQL Server 2014.

Which three actions should you recommend performing nextEach correct answer presents part of the solution.

A. Install a SQL Server 2014 Reporting Services add-in for SharePoint on all of the front- end Web servers that have SharePoint Server installed.

B. Perform an in-place upgrade to SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) 2014.

C. Perform a SharePoint 2013 side-by-side upgrade.

D. Perform a SharePoint 2013 in-place upgrade.

E. Migrate legacy reports and application data.

F. Install a new instance of SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) 2014.

Correct Answer: AEF


Question 5:

You are designing a customer dimension for a multidimensional OLAP (MOLAP) database. The dimension table will contain millions of rows of data.

Customer dimension attributes will come from the following two sources:

An enterprise resource planning (ERP) system that contains millions of rows of data. Attributes from this source will be updated daily. A marketing database that contains thousands of rows of data representing customers\’ geographic

information. Attributes from this source will be updated monthly.

Most report queries against the cube use attributes from both sources. Customers in the cube dimension will frequently be filtered by the geographic attributes.

You need to design the dimension table and cube dimension to ensure that report queries perform well, and minimize the time required to reprocess cube attributes.

What should you do(More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)

A. Create a dimension table for each source. Create one cube dimension that joins the two dimension tables together.

B. Create one dimension table that combines data from both sources. Create a cube dimension for each source.

C. Create one dimension table that combines data from both sources. Create one cube dimension that references the dimension table.

D. Create a dimension table for each source, and a cube dimension for each source.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

The IT department is currently upgrading all SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) packages to SSIS 2012.

The final version of a complex SSIS 2005 package has been overwritten. Four prior versions of the package exist. Each of the prior versions contains a different part of the final solution. You have backups of all associated project files.

You need to create an updated package as quickly and accurately as possible.

What should you do(More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)

A. Use an XML editing tool to merge the compatible changes of the package versions by comparing the package refID fields. Upgrade the merged version.

B. Upgrade the four package versions. Use an XML editing tool to merge the compatible changes of the package versions by comparing the package refID fields.

C. Use the DataSet.Merge method to merge the compatible changes of the package versions by using the Lineage IDs. Upgrade the merged version.

D. Upgrade the four package versions. Use SSIS Designer to visually compare the package versions, determine the compatible changes, and copy the compatible tasks into a single package.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

You are designing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) solution. The solution will contain an SSIS project that includes several SSIS packages. Each SSIS package will define the same connection managers and variables.

You have the following requirements:

Ensure that the deployment model supports changing the content of connection strings by using parameters at execution time.

Ensure that the deployment model automatically starts from calls to the catalog.start_execution stored procedure in the SSISDB database.

Maximize performance at execution time.

Minimize development effort.

You need to design a solution that meets the requirements.

What should you do(More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)

A. Use a project deployment model. Modify connection manager properties to use project parameters. Ensure that the SSISDB database is created.

B. Use a project deployment model. Configure connections in an XML configuration file referenced by an environment variable that corresponds to the SQL Server environment of each SSIS package.

C. Use a package deployment model. Use a SQL Server package configuration with a common filter. Change the contents of the SSIS Configurations table at runtime.

D. Use a package deployment model. Save each SSIS package to a file share that can be accessed from all environments.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

An existing cube dimension that has 30 attribute hierarchies is performing very poorly. You have the following requirements:

Implement drill-down browsing.

Reduce the number of attribute hierarchies but ensure that the information contained within them is available to users on demand.

Optimize performance.

You need to redesign the cube dimension to meet the requirements.

What should you do(More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)

A. set the AggregateFunction property to Sum on all measures. Use the SCOPE statement in a Multidimensional Expressions (MDX) calculation to tune the aggregation types.

B. Set the AttributeHierarchyOptimizedState property to FullyOptimized on the attribute hierarchies.

C. Create user-defined hierarchies. For the attributes sourced by the levels of the user- defined hierarchies, set the RelationshipType property to Rigid. Run incremental processing.

D. Remove as many attribute hierarchies as possible from the dimension. Reintroduce the information in the attribute hierarchies as properties. Implement natural hierarchies and set the AttributeHierarchyVisible property to False for attributes used as levels in the natural hierarchies.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

A company has a relational data warehouse, a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) database, and a SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) instance. The SSAS database contains a cube named Sales. Shared data sources exist in SSRS

for the relational and SSAS databases. Each company department has its own report writers. Report writers in the Marketing department want to create new reports by using Report Builder. Many reports will include data generated by a

custom formula that references data stored either in a data warehouse table or in the Sales cube. The custom formula will compare time periods across multiple products, categories, and regions.

You have the following requirements:

Ensure that only Marketing department report writers can access the custom formula.

Implement only one dataset.

Ensure that the dataset references the data source that will provide the fastest data retrieval.

You need to meet the requirements to support the Marketing department report writers.

What should you do(More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)

A. Create, deploy, and secure a shared dataset that references the SSAS database shared data source and includes a calculated member for the custom formula.

B. Create a calculated member in the Sales cube. Create, deploy, and secure a shared dataset that references the SSAS database shared data source and includes the calculated member from the cube.

C. Create and secure in the data warehouse a stored procedure that implements the custom formula. Create and deploy a shared dataset that references the data warehouse shared data source.

D. Create, deploy, and secure a shared dataset that references the data warehouse shared data source and includes custom Transact-SQL (T-SQL) code for the custom formula.

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

You have a SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) 2012 instance integrated with a Microsoft SharePoint 2010 farm.

You need to upgrade to SSRS 2014 with the minimum downtime and hardware requirements.

What should you do(More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)

A. Install SSRS 2014 on a new SharePoint farm and migrate content to the new farm.

B. Migrate SSRS content to new servers that run SSRS 2014.

C. Migrate SSRS content to a separate instance of SSRS 2014 on the same server.

D. Perform an in-place upgrade of the SSRS environment.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: We cannot do a side-by-side installation (answer C) because that\’s not supported in SharePoint mode so an in-place upgrade is the only option that doesn\’t require additional servers.

SQL Server 2014 Reporting Services (SSRS) Native mode can be installed side-by-side with a SQL Server 2012 Native mode deployment.

There is no support for side-by-side deployments of SQL Server 2014 Reporting Services (SSRS) SharePoint mode and any previous versions of SharePoint mode components.


Question 11:

You are modifying a SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) report for a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) cube. The report defines a report parameter of data type Date/Time with which users can filter the report by a single date. The parameter value cannot be directly used to filter the Multidimensional Expressions (MDX) query for the dataset.

You need to ensure that the report displays data filtered by the user-entered value. You must achieve this goal by using the least amount of development effort. What should you do(More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)

A. Edit the dataset query parameter. Change the Value property of the report parameter to an expression that uses the same format as the date dimension member key value.

B. Edit the dataset query parameter. Change the Name property of the dataset query parameter so that it points to a name value for each date dimension member.

C. Edit the dataset query parameter. Create a subcube subquery that uses the StrToSet MDX function and accepts the report parameter value.

D. Change the dataset query to Transact-SQL (T-SQL). Use the OPENROWSET function to query the cube. Output the cube results to the T-SQL query and use a Convert function to change the report parameter value into the same format as the date dimension member.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

You are designing a partitioning strategy for a large fact table in a Manufacturing data warehouse.

Tens of millions of new inventory fact records are loaded into the data warehouse weekly, outside of business hours. Most queries against the database are generated by reports and by cube processing. Data is frequently queried at the day level and occasionally at the month level.

A. Partition the inventory fact table by month, and compress each partition.

B. Partition the inventory fact table by day, and compress each partition.

C. Partition the inventory fact table by year.

D. Partition the inventory fact table by week.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

You are designing a multidimensional OLAP (MOLAP) cube.

The MOLAP cube must meet the following requirements:

Ensure that workloads for aggregation tuning can be automatically collected. Require the least amount of effort to perform manual aggregation tuning. Minimize impact on the performance of previously tuned queries. You need to design a

MOLAP cube that meets the requirements.

What should you do(More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)

A. Enable SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) query logging. Run the Usage-Based Optimization Wizard to generate aggregations. Merge the wizard results with existing aggregation designs.

B. Set up multiple partitions. Run the Aggregation Design Wizard periodically for each measure group. After the wizard finishes, discard the old aggregation design and accept the new one.

C. Set up multiple partitions. Run the Aggregation Design Wizard on each partition. Schedule the aggregations by using an XMLA script in SQL Server Agent.

D. Set the AggregationUsage property of all attributes based on natural keys to Full.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

You are designing a self-service reporting solution based on published PowerPivot workbooks.

The reporting solution must allow users to perform the following tasks:

Easily create reports.

Create report queries by dragging and dropping fields. Create presentation-quality reports with minimal effort.

You need to choose a reporting tool that meets the requirements.

Which reporting tool should you choose(More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)

A. Report Builder

B. Report Designer

C. Power View

D. Microsoft Excel

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

A company runs SQL Server Database Engine and SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) in native mode. Reports are based on data that is cached in multiple shared datasets. Source data is archived each day at midnight for regulatory

compliance purposes. The shared datasets may continue to cache data that should not be used in reports. Shared report schedules are often paused during nightly server maintenance windows.

Reports must not return archived data.

You need to create a fully automated solution to ensure that reports do not deliver archived data.

What should you do(More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)

A. Write a script that calls the flushcache method to clear individual items from the SSRS cache. Create a SQL Server Agent job that runs rs.exe with the script as an input file, and schedule the job to run every day after the archive process completes.

B. Create a SQL Server Agent job that uses a Transact-SQL (T-SQL) step to truncate the dbo.ExecutionCache table in the ReportServerTempDB database. Schedule the job to run every day after the archive process completes.

C. Create a SQL Server Agent job that restarts the SQL Server Reporting Services service. Schedule the job to run every day after the archive process completes.

D. Create a shared schedule. Configure the datasets to expire on the shared schedule.

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

How can Word Investigation reports be used to modify a rule set?

A. Corrects spelling errors in the data field.

B. Adds tokens to allow identification of additional duplicates.

C. Identifies new tokens to allow additional words to be classified.

D. Identifies matched words to be used in match designer frequency distribution.

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

When would you use the survive technique \’Most Frequent\’?

A. When more than one target field is required.

B. When the most frequent occurrence is required.

C. When the most frequently populated value is required.

D. When the most frequently populated value is required with two or more occurrences.

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Which statement is true about creating a Match Statistics report from a One-source match?

A. You must use the Match Statistics stage.

B. The One-source Match Statistics link target must be ODBC.

C. The One-source Match Statistics link target must be a sequential file.

D. The One-source Match Statistics link target can be any QualityStage supported target.

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

You re-ran a job to update the standardized data. This standardized data file is used in your test environment configuration on Match Designer.

What action would you take to insure the most current standardized data file is used?

A. No action is required.

B. You need to open Test Environment and click [Update].

C. You need to open Data Table Definition and click [Update].

D. You need to click [Test All Passes] to apply changes in the standardized data.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

If a match pass has a match cutoff weight of 10 and a clerical cutoff weight of 8. what would be the weight range for clerical records?

A. 10 > Clerical Records > 8

B. 10 > Clerical Records >= 8

C. 10 >= Clerical Records > 8

D. 10>= Clerical Records >= 8

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

What four files are part of the QualityStage rule set?

A. IPO. ITO. UCL, UTO

B. IPD. ITO, UCL. UTO

C. IPO. PTO. UPD. UTD

D. PRC. TBL. PTO. OVR

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Which data type(s) will NOT be supported by Standardization?

A. Binary.

B. Integer.

C. Non-vector data types.

D. Non-aggregate data types.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

In order to accomplish Word Investigation in a single QualityStage job, how many investigate stages would be required for the following fields:

PREFIX, FIRST_NAME, LAST_NAME. SUFFIX. ADDRESSJI. ADDRESS_2, ADDRESS_3, CITY, STATE. andZIPCODE?

A. Ten.

B. Five.

C. Three.

D. Seven.

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

You created a job that uses the standardization stage with a new copy of USADDR rule set. The job was successfully compiled, but has an error and will not run.

What is most likely the cause of the problem?

A. The input file is missing.

B. The rule set is not provisioned.

C. The server does not have enough memory.

D. The rule set has an invalid statement in the pattern file.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Which of these statements is NOT true?

A. NLS can only process multi-byte characters.

B. NLS supports various languages and countries.

C. You can process Japanese data in an English version of QualityStage.

D. When installing a non-English language version of QualityStage, NLS is enabled automatically.

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

What are two purposes of Standardization processing?

A. It removes duplicate data elements.

B. It identifies best record to move forward in processing.

C. It certifies and verifies data elements based on USPS postal standards.

D. It places each value into a single domain field, and transforms data into a standard format.

E. It applies consistent representations, corrects misspellings, and incorporates business or industry standards.

Correct Answer: AE


Question 12:

Which match type would you use to perform a “fuzzy” match for a field containing many un- parsed words (such as a comments field)?

A. CNT_DIFF

B. PRORATED

C. MULT_EXACT

D. MULT_UNCERT

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

What would happen if a special character is included in the SEPLIST and not in the STRIPLIST?

A. That special character will be ignored.

B. You will get an error when you test a statement.

C. The token class for that character becomes the character itself.

D. You need to enclose in double quotes any special characters in the SEPLIST that is not in the STRIPLIST.

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

A major international financial firm has clients in over 35 countries, including the U.S. and Japan. A requirement exists to standardize all addresses and validate the U.S. and Japanese physical addresses.

How can this be accomplished?

A. Use AVI to process all addresses within the single source.

B. Use USAC to certify the U.S. addresses, AVI for the Japan addresses and custom rule sets for the remaining countries.

C. Filter all the records by country. Use AVI for the U.S. and Japan and domain-specific rule sets for the remaining countries.

D. Filter U.S., Japan and remaining countries into individual files. Process the U.S. and Japan addresses through AVI and use MNS for the remaining countries.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

You are using the Match Designer with a One-source match specification. You have attempted to configure the match specification test environment and received an error when you selected \’Update\’. What is the most likely cause of the problem.

A. The \’Configuration File Location\’ is blank.

B. The \’Maximum Frequency Value\’ is blank.

C. The \’Data Sample Data Set\’ is not a Data Set.

D. The Test Results Database\’ is not a defined connector.

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

Who is responsible for the oversight of structures and mechanisms that drive enterprise governance of information and technology (EGIT)?

A. Individual business units

B. External regulators

C. The board

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.isaca.org/resources/isaca-journal/issues/2017/volume-4/exploring-how-corporategovernance-codes-address-it-governance


Question 2:

COBIT defines stakeholder value creation as which of the following?

A. Realization of benefits at a controlled resource cost while controlling risk

B. Realization of benefits at an optimal resource cost while optimizing risk

C. Realization of benefits at a reduced resource cost while mitigating risk

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

The value that IandT delivers should be:

A. aligned directly with the values on which the business is focused.

B. focused exclusively on IandT investments that generate financial benefits.

C. restricted to maintaining and increasing value derived from existing IandT investments.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://community.mis.temple.edu/mis5203sec001sp2019/files/2019/01/COBIT-2019Framework-Introduction-and-Methodology_res_eng_1118.pdf (12)


Question 4:

COBIT addresses governance issues by doing which of the following?

A. Grouping relevant governance components into objectives that can be managed to a required capability level

B. Providing a full description of the entire IT environment within an enterprise

C. Defining specific governance strategies and processes to implement in specific situations

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which of the following is a guiding principle in the development of COBIT?

A. COBIT aligns with other related and relevant IandT standards, frameworks and regulations

B. COBIT includes relevant content from other related IandT standards, frameworks and regulations.

C. COBIT serves as a comprehensive standalone framework that covers all relevant IandT-related activities.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Which of the following is an element of governance?

A. Building plans to align with the direction set by the governance body

B. Monitoring activities designed to achieve enterprise objectives

C. Evaluating stakeholder needs to determine enterprise objectives

Correct Answer: A

Element 1: Set a clear purpose and stay focused on it.

Reference: https://oag.parliament.nz/good-practice/governance/organisation


Question 7:

In most cases, management of the enterprise is the responsibility of:

A. the project management office.

B. the executive management team.

C. the board of directors.

Correct Answer: A

A strategic (enterprise) PMO (sometimes called the office of strategy management) plays a role in linking the organization\’s projects to its strategic plans. Reference: https://www.pmi.org/learning/library/strategic-project-management-office-execution-6737


Question 8:

Which of the following benefits derived from the use of COBIT is PRIMARILY associated with an external stakeholder?

A. COBIT provides guidance on how to organize and monitor the performance of IandT across the enterprise.

B. COBIT helps to manage the dependency on the use of external service providers.

C. COBIT helps to ensure compliance with applicable rules and regulations.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cio.com/article/3243684/what-is-cobit-a-framework-for-alignment-andgovernance.html


Question 9:

The primary target audience for COBIT is:

A. anyone responsible for the governance solution.

B. assurance professionals responsible for evaluating and reporting on the existence of internal controls.

C. business and IT management responsible for building and deploying IandT solutions.

Correct Answer: C

The course is suitable for business managers, chief executives, IT/IS auditors, internal auditors, information security and IT practitioners, consultants and IT/IS managers requiring an insight into the enterprise governance of IT and who may also be requiring certification as a COBIT 5. Reference: https://s3-eu-west-1.amazonaws.com/cdn.webfactore.co.uk/6176_2_cobit® 5 foundation.pdf


Question 10:

Within the principles for a governance system, the value generated from the use of IandT reflects:

A. the ratio of costs versus achieved service levels.

B. a balance among benefits, risk and resources.

C. maximized financial benefits to the investment portfolio.

Correct Answer: B

The governance system should also to generate value from the use of IandT. To create value, the enterprise

must balance benefits, risk, and resources.

Reference: https://www.testpreptraining.com/tutorial/governance-system-principles/


Question 11:

Which of the following should a stakeholder do to optimize the use of COBIT?

A. Customize COBIT guidance to meet industry best practices.

B. Customize COBIT guidance to meet specific enterprise needs.

C. Ensure COBIT guidance is strictly followed without alterations.

Correct Answer: B

Customizable solution that can address the unique needs of any enterprise.

Reference: https://www.escoute.com/finally-a-guide-for-tailoring-a-governance-system-for-information-andtechnology/


Question 12:

Which COBIT principle addresses the need to consider how many changes in technology or strategy impact the enterprise governance system as a whole?

A. A governance system should be tailored to the enterprise\’s needs.

B. A governance system should cover the enterprise end to end.

C. A governance system should be dynamic.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.escoute.com/finally-a-guide-for-tailoring-a-governance-system-for-information-andtechnology/


Question 13:

Which of the following BEST enables an enterprise to maximize value from the use of IandT?

A. A clearly defined IandT management structure

B. An actionable strategy and governance system

C. Well-documented and monitored business processes

Correct Answer: B

To create value, the enterprise must balance benefits, risk, and resources, and develop an actionable

strategy and governance system.

Reference: https://www.testpreptraining.com/tutorial/governance-system-principles/


Question 14:

Which of the following is a KEY principle of an enterprise governance system?

A. It should focus on all technology and information processing, regardless of where processing takes place.

B. It should focus only on technology and information processing that takes place within the IT function.

C. It should focus only on technology and information processing that takes place in cost centers

Correct Answer: A

A governance system should cover the enterprise end to end, focusing not only on the IT function but on all technology and information processing the enterprise puts in place to achieve its goals, regardless where the processing is located in the enterprise. Reference: https://www.futurelearn.com/info/courses/security-operations/0/steps/89307


Question 15:

According to the principles for a governance framework, which of the following is a PRIMARY consideration when addressing new issues within a flexible and open framework?

A. Maintaining integrity and consistency

B. Aligning with internal IT policies and procedures

C. Identifying related industry standards

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

What is the main purpose of segmentation algorithms in IBM SPSS Modeler?

A. To prepare a data set for optimal modeling.

B. To reduce data to a simpler form.

C. To divide the market or customer base into groups.

D. To discover linked purchases and other occurrences.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which statement best describes the integration between IBM Cognos and IBM SPSS Modeler?

A. Data used in IBM Cognos BI and IBM TM1 is directly available to IBM SPSS Modeler, and results calculated are available for reporting.

B. Data used in IBM Cognos BI and IBM TM1 is directly available to IBM SPSS Modeler, and results can be written to the database for IT to make available for reporting.

C. Data used in IBM Cognos BI and IBM TM1 is exported into a file and then read into IBM SPSS Modeler for further analysis.

D. IBM SPSS Modeler creates an IBM Cognos report that can be added to an IBM Cognos BI dashboard.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

What is NOT a key competitive differentiator of IBM SPSS Modeler based on product feature/functionality?

A. Automated modeling and data preparation

B. Intuitive visual interface

C. Scorecards and dashboards

D. Open and scalable architecture

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Which is an example of an IBM SPSS Modeler Opportunity?

A. An on-line retailer is looking to deploy Customer Satisfaction Surveys.

B. An on-line retailer is looking to predict stock levels for its warehouses.

C. An on-line retailer is looking to measure activity on Social Media.

D. An on-line retailer is looking to report on transactions within a region.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which step is considered to be high-risk when included in progressing an IBM SPSS Modeler opportunity?

A. ROI assessment

B. Executive-level agreement

C. Enablement assessment

D. Proof of Concept

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Which of the following is NOT a value proposition that would be used when competing against SAS for an opportunity?

A. IBM SPSS Modeler is typically quicker to implement with a large data provider, experiencing a 6 to 1 faster implementation time with SPSS over SAS.

B. IBM SPSS Modeler empowers business users with a marketing department gaining IT independence by allowing them to do their own market basket analysis and loyalty models.

C. IBM SPSS Modeler delivers faster time to value, with a North American insurance company reducing model development time from 18 months to 6 weeks when using SPSS vs. SAS.

D. IBM SPSS Modeler has more algorithms providing for deeper analytical options. This helps retailers secure 10K additional customers when they use a secret algorithm their competitors couldn\’t duplicate.

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

You have just finished a meeting with a Business Analyst where you learned about her need to gain greater insight into the data in a CRM system which they just implemented, that her manager has provided her with a budget for this project, and that it needs to be deployed in 90 days. What should you do with this information?

A. Enter this as an opportunity into Global Partner Portal.

B. Enter this as an opportunity into a spreadsheet.

C. Enter this as an opportunity via an e-mail message.

D. Enter this as an opportunity into dashboard report.

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Which role is typically the buyer of IBM SPSS Modeler?

A. Business Manager

B. Business Analyst

C. System Manager

D. Analytic Professional

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

An insurance executive is looking for a solution to predict fraudulent claims before they are processed, customer churn and field agent allocation. What other use-case might she be interested in for IBM SPSS Modeler?

A. Real time scoring

B. Enforcing fine-grained security entitlements

C. Streamlining the edit-build-debug cycle

D. Customer Intimacy

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

As part of your IBM SPSS Modeler opportunity progression, the Chief Financial Officer of the prospective company requests a Return on Investment reference for IBM SPSS Modeler. Which would NOT apply?

A. A building manufacturer realized a 113% return on investment in 12 months.

B. A division within IBM predicts to have 150% return on investment in one year.

C. A telemarketer using ANOVA realized $2M in cost savings the first year of use.

D. A telecommunications company who realized $3.8M in cost savings per year.

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which does NOT indicate an opportunity to up-sell from IBM SPSS Modeler Premium to IBM SPSS Modeler Gold?

A. Customer desires greater insight into the algorithms and approaches used to build their models.

B. Customer desires the ability to combine business logic with predictive models.

C. Customer desires integrating predictive analytics with prescriptive analytics (optimization) to manage tradeoffs and make best use of scarce resources.

D. Customer desires to use advanced analytics to drive daily business processes.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Which statement characterizes the value of IBM SPSS Modeler for predictive threat and fraud analytics?

A. IBM SPSS Modeler helps an organization run an audit for security breaches.

B. IBM SPSS Modeler helps an organization identify patterns for fraud and reduces false positives.

C. IBM SPSS Modeler creates a portal for defending online applications and access against targeted web attacks.

D. IBM SPSS Modeler helps an organization centralize password management and single sign-on to help protect enterprise resources.

Correct Answer: B

Reference:

ftp://ftp.software.ibm.com/software/au/analytics/spss/paresources/Threat_and_Fraud_Anal ytics_FINAL_WEB.pdf (slide 13)


Question 13:

What percentage of out-performers have predictive analytics capabilities?

A. 20%

B. 40%

C. 60%

D. 80%

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which best describes a transformational deployment of IBM SPSS Modeler?

A. A sales department focused on launching targeted advertising campaigns.

B. A marketing director focused on reporting campaign results to the executive committee.

C. A marketing organization focused on integrating predictive models within a business process across multiple departments to optimize decision-making.

D. A human resource consultant focused on predicting which employees may leave a client\’s business.

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

A prospect wants to better predict who will respond to his marketing campaigns. He is currently evaluating a variety of solutions. According to BANT, what information is needed to determine if this opportunity is viable?

A. Identify Authority to Purchase, Determination of Timeline for Acquisition, Assessment of Need, Confirmation of Budget

B. Identify Authority to Purchase, Estimation of Return on Investment, Services and Training Needs Assessment, Confirmation of Budget

C. Identify Authority to Purchase, Estimation of Return on Investment, Determination of Market Segment Application. Confirmation of Budget

D. Services and Training Needs Assessment, Determination of Market Segment Application, Assessment of Need, Determination of Timeline for Acquisition

Correct Answer: B


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Internet Explorer.

Which two actions must an administrator perform to ensure that users are informed of the browser requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Configure Advanced Expression policies to determine the type of browser used.

B. Create a backup server to display a website that informs users of the browser requirements.

C. Configure a redirect URL to redirect users to a website that informs them of the browser requirements.

D. Configure a default policy to redirect users to a website that informs them of the browser requirements.

Correct Answer: AD


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Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is in the process of implementing StoreFront with NetScaler Gateway.

Users in the environment will access resources through Citrix Receiver only.

What does the administrator need to configure on the NetScaler Gateway to enable access through Citrix Receiver only?

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B. A Traffic Policy

C. Endpoint Scans

D. An AppFlow Policy

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A Citrix Administrator needs to record the usernames of all users who are accessing resources through the NetScaler Gateway. Which two NetScaler tools can accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. SNMP

B. Syslog

C. Dashboard

D. NetScaler Insight Center

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AttheonsetofaXenDesktop7.5with NetScalerGateway 10.5proof-of-concept, usersreportthey are unableto access desktop and server OS machines. Which configuration might be preventing users from accessing desktop and server OS machines?

A. Single-hop DMZ with StoreFront

B. Double-hopDMZwithStoreFront

C. Single-hop DMZ with Web Interface

D. Double-hop DMZ with Web Interface

Correct Answer: B


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Which three steps should a Citrix Administrator take to customize the NetScaler Gateway logon page? (Choose three.)

A. Select Custom within UI Theme.

B. Create customization changes under jnsconfig.

C. Create a tar package of the customization files.

D. Add a copy command to rc.netscaler file within jnsconfig.

E. Create customization changes under jvarjns gui customjns guijvpn.

Correct Answer: ACE


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A Citrix Administrator is upgrading NetScaler 10.1 appliances in a high availability (HA) pair to NetScaler 10.5. What is the first step to launch the upgrade according to Citrix best practice?

A. Use the NetScaler Configuration Utility on the primary appliance to force HA failover.

B. Execute the installns command on the primary appliance.

C. Use the NetScaler Configuration Utility on the secondary appliance to force HA failover.

D. Execute the installns command on the secondary appliance.

Correct Answer: D


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External users should only be allowed to access an application from devices with a specific registry setting. What should an administrator configure on the NetScaler to restrict access to the application?

A. LDAP

B. L3 Mode

C. SSLjvPN

D. Endpoint Analysis

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

A customer recently performed an ONTAP upgrade and would like to confirm the successful completion of the process. Which three actions would satisfy this requirement? (Choose three.)

A. Execute the version command at the cluster shell.

B. Verify the version from the new AutoSupport that was automatically triggered after an upgrade.

C. A System Message notification will be shown upon reboot after a successful upgrade.

D. Execute the system node upgrade-revert show command at the cluster shell.

E. Execute the system node upgrade-revert show-task-status command at the cluster shell.

Correct Answer: ACD

Reference: https://library.netapp.com/ecm/ecm_download_file/ECMLP2492712


Question 2:

A manager wants a volume to have a guaranteed 300 MB/s of read performance. You explain that you cannot do this on FAS storage running ONTAP 9.3 backed by 10,000 RPM disks. What is the reason for this response?

A. Throughput floors apply to only iSCSI access.

B. Throughput floors can only guarantee up to 125 MB/s.

C. Throughput floors require a license.

D. Throughput floors require AFF.

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Click the exhibit button.

Based on the QoS output from the storage controller, your database administrator is complaining of slow read and write performance. Referring to the exhibit, what would be two appropriate actions to improve performance for both reads and writes? (Choose two.)

A. Move the workload to an SSD aggregate.

B. Apply a QoS maximum policy to the csdata-wid1234 workload.

C. Add a Flash Pool to the existing aggregate.

D. Upgrade the controller\’s NVRAM.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 4:

You are migrating volumes from an older aggregate to a new aggregate using the vol move command. You notice that, after completion, access to these volumes is slower until a certain process finishes. Which process is causing the problem in this scenario?

A. deswizzling

B. active bitmap rearrangement

C. snap create

D. container block reclamation

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Click the Exhibit button.

Your customer\’s disks are showing 100% utilization, but the customer sees minimal user I/O. You collect statistics using the statit command over a 10-second time period as shown in the exhibit. In this scenario, what is the problem?

A. The end users are doing a lot of reads on the SATA disks that are using vStorage APIs

B. Disk 0a.16 is being used to reconstruct data from a failed disk in the aggregate.

C. Disk 0a.16 is faulty and should be replaced.

D. The network has too many multicast packets.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

When you expand an aggregate, the spare partitions can be added as only a new RAID group, even though the current RAID group size is large enough for the current and new partitions. In this scenario, which statement is correct?

A. The partitions to be added share disks with the partitions in the existing RAID group.

B. RAID group size is used only when dealing with non-partitioned disks.

C. Only nonpartitioned disks can be added to a RAID group with existing partitions.

D. The aggregate must be converted to RAID-TEC to expand RAID groups using partitions.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

A customer explains that the Active IQ section of the NetApp Support site indicates that their controller has not called home within the past three months. They are not using a mail host to deliver AutoSupport notifications. When troubleshooting the AutoSupport message, you enter the event log show -messagename asup.post* command.

In this scenario, what would you expect to see on the console?

A. event-management system (EMS) events for the AutoSupport system that are related to SMTP

B. a history of all error events related to the AutoSupport system

C. event-management system (EMS) events for the AutoSupport system that are related to HTTP/HTTPS

D. event-management (EMS) events for the AutoSupport system that are related to any protocol

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

An administrator just upgraded the controllers and wants to nondisruptively implement Advanced Drive Partitioning (ADP) as part of the change. Which statement is correct in this scenario?

A. ADP cannot be implemented on this system.

B. ADP can be implemented as long as all of the on-board drives do not contain data.

C. ONTAP does not support ADP.

D. ADP can be implemented, but only with a complete data-wipe and initialization.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

A customer has an SVM with an SSD aggregate that is reaching capacity. They want to move the data to another SVM with attached SATA drives. Which two ONTAP features will accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. volume copy

B. volume move

C. volume rehost

D. volume relocate

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://whyistheinternetbroken.wordpress.com/2016/06/08/volume-rehosting-ontap9/


Question 10:

Users are unable to access data stored on an ONTAP cluster. The storage aggregate show command reports that the aggregates are offline and wafl_inconsistent. Which action would you perform to recover the aggregate?

A. Perform an aggregate copy and delete the source aggregate.

B. Execute the storage aggregate online command from the cluster shell.

C. Use file system recovery tools to recover the aggregate.

D. Execute the aggr online command from maintenance mode.

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

A customer has a company-wide power outage scheduled and needs to gracefully power off a 2-node cluster. In this scenario, which of two steps should be performed? (Choose two.)

A. Use the halt -node * -skip-lif-migration-before-shutdown true -inhibit-takeover true command.

B. Invoke an AutoSupport message to indicate a planned maintenance time.

C. Use OnCommand System Manager to halt the controllers.

D. Use the halt -node * command.

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://library.netapp.com/ecm/ecm_download_file/ECMLP2492713


Question 12:

A customer created a new volume on an SVM for testing. During the first day of testing, the customer copied data to the volume using NFS and consumed 75% of the free space. The second day of testing required the existing data to be deleted and replaced by an equal amount of different data. During the copy, an error message stated that the volume was full.

What would explain the observed error?

A. The user did not have permissions to the export.

B. The client lost connectivity to the export.

C. Vscan stopped the write due to an infection.

D. The old data is still contained within a snapshot.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

A customer recently experienced a panic on one node of an ONTAP cluster. Prior to performing the giveback, they want to know what caused the panic. You request data from the customer to assist Support in determining the cause of the panic.

What information should be requested in this situation? (Choose three.)

A. panic string

B. Perfstat

C. core dump

D. message logs

E. packet trace

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 14:

After you replace a network adapter card in a NetApp node, what should be done before you put the node back into production?

A. From the cluster::> prompt, use the sldiag utility for testing before rejoining the cluster.

B. From the LOADER> prompt, use the boot_diags command and use the sldiag utility for testing.

C. From the LOADER> prompt, use the boot_ontap command to boot into ONTAP and use the sldiag utility for testing.

D. From the cluster::> prompt, use the set diag command for testing before rejoining the cluster.

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

A customer performed maintenance last weekend and power cycled both FAS8060 nodes of a 2-node ONTAP 9.2 cluster. The customer is concerned about port errors seen from the system ha interconnect port show command output.

Which two steps would you perform in troubleshooting this condition? (Choose two.)

A. Use the system ha interconnect link off/on command to manually reset the HA interconnect Link 0 and Link 1 on both nodes.

B. Perform a takeover/giveback of both nodes.

C. reset the counters using the system ha interconnect statistics clear-port command.

D. Use the system ha interconnect flush command to manually reset the HA interconnect Link 0 and Link 1 on both nodes.

Correct Answer: AB


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B. SOA governance continuous improvement enablesyour organization to define and deploy your ownfocused and customized SOA governance model.

C. SOA governance continuous improvement enables your organization to make sure that Services are reused.

D. SOA governance continuous improvement enables your organization to achieve ROI on you SOA initiative.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which statement describes how complexity, effort, and benefit are used In the SOA Project Selection Framework?

A. Complexity measures the number of integrations that the projectwould require. Effort measures the amount of effort that existing shared services would save for the project. Benefitmeasures the amount of additional revenue that would result from the project, A top project for inclusion would have a larger benefit and effort with a lower complexity.

B. Complexity measures the number of integrations that the project would require. Effort measures the amount of effort that existing shared services would save for the project. Benefit measures the business benefit that would be delivered by the project. A top project for inclusion would have a larger benefit and effort with a lower complexity.

C. Complexity measures the technical complexity of the project. Effort measures the level of effort required to complete the project. Benefit measures the amount that the project would advance the SOA maturity of the organization. A top project for inclusion would have a larger benefit than the effort.

D. Complexity measures the technical complexity of the project. Effort measures the level of effort required to complete the project. Benefit measures the amount of business benefit that would be delivered by the project. A top project for inclusion would have a large benefit and lower complexity and effort.

E. Complexity measures the technical complexity of the project. Effort measures the level of effort required to complete the project. Benefit measures the amount of business benefit that would be delivered by the project. A top project for inclusion would have a large benefit and an effort that is lower than the complexity.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

You have decided to define your own focused and customized SOA Governance Model with an accompanying continuous improvement feedback loop. The continuous improvement feedback loop is executed upon receiving one or more event notifications. Your service bus vendor announces that a stable and mature SOA security standard is now available in the latest version of the product. Which event would need to be published to initiate the continuous Improvement feedback loop?

A. Strategic Change

B. Vendor Revision

C. Operational Exception

D. SOA Maturity Level Change

E. Technology Revision

F. Periodic

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

While analyzing the business requirements, you identify some cross-cutting functionality that does not carry any business context or have an affinity to any specific application. To which service layer classification does the Service you develop to fulfill this requirement belong?

A. Connectivity Service

B. Data Service

C. Business Activity Service

D. Utility Service

E. Presentation Service

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Which two statements accurately describe how the service-oriented integration architecture is deployed to physical hardware?

A. Each layer in the architecture must be deployed to separate hardware.

B. All layers of the architecture must be deployed to the same hardware.

C. Multiple layers in the architecture may share hardware.

D. All client access to the architecture must pass through the mediation layer.

E. The Business Process layer and the Business Service layer are deployed to the DMZ tier,

F. The Data Movement layer is deployed to the DMZ tier.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 7:

Which three of the following are architecture principles for service-oriented integration?

A. Point-to-point integrations should be avoided.

B. Integrations should be point-to-point using Web Services.

C. Message and data formats should be based on the native application data structures.

D. Extensive, intrusive modifications to existing applications should be avoided.

E. Service consumers should be able to migrate to a newer version of a SOA Service gracefully.

F. There should not be more than one version of a SOA Service in production concurrently.

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 8:

You have been asked to justify the creation of a Service, but skills In the best implementation technology are expensive. How would you reflect that in the Service Candidate Selection Framework?

A. Choose a different technology and automatically score the Service as having a high technology capability inhibitor score

B. Reflect the cost of the resources in the weighting for the skill set Impact inhibitor score

C. Reduce the potential reuse level of the Service because It may be difficult to find skills to update and manage the Service in the future

D. You cannot score this Service without the skills being available

E. This availability of the skill is too subjective to be possible to score

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

When the SOA roadmap process is described to a customer, the customer balks at the approach because the first step in the process is a current state analysis. From past experience the customer has seen current state assessments that took months to complete. The customer is not willing to spend months on another current state assessment. How is this customer issue addressed by the SOA roadmap development approach?

A. The scope of the current state assessment is limited to one business unit at a time. This keeps the length of the assessment to approximately two weeks.

B. The current state assessment is performed by evaluating the maturity and adoption of capabilities in the SOA Maturity Model. This narrow focus allows the assessment to be completed in approximately two weeks.

C. The scope of the current state assessment is restricted to the projects that the Project Selection Framework identified as the best SOA projects. This limited set of projects can be assessed in approximately two weeks.

D. The current state assessment is time boxed to two weeks. At the end of the two weeks, thecurrent state assessment is deemed complete and the next step in the roadmap creation process is begun.

E. The current state assessment is done by reviewing documents provided by the customer. Two weeks is sufficient to review the documents and determine the current state.

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

After having success in your SOA initiative across a single line of business, management wants you to deploy SOA across the enterprise in a cost effective and expedited manner. Your primary concern is that not all of your organization\’s line of businesses has enough developers with the knowledge and experience to develop Services. Which course of action do you apply to address this concern?

A. Allow each line of business to hire external consultants to develop Services

B. Implement a shared resource service factory

C. Send all line of business developers on a service engineering course

D. Implement an enterprise service factory

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

The service lifecycle is shown in the exhibit. Some stages of the lifecycle are missing their labels What are the missing stages?

A. Justified, Not Justified, Assigned, Defined, Implemented, Retired

B. Justified, Not Justified, Defined, Assigned, Implemented, Retired

C. Approved, Rejected, Defined, Assigned, Implemented, Retired

D. Justified, Not Justified, Assigned, Defined, Implemented, Deprecated

E. Approved, Rejected, Assigned, Defined, Implemented, Deprecated

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

The company you are working with wants to integrate an environment control system into the facility security and monitoring system. The environment control system sends temperature and humidity readings every half second. What is the best message exchange pattern to use for this integration and why?

A. The one-way message exchange pattern is the best pattern for this scenario because it requires the least network resources and if a message is lost, another message with more up-to-date information will be sent in less than a second.

B. The reliable one-way message exchange pattern is the best pattern for this scenario because it provides a status return code so that a lost message can be re-sent.

C. The request-response message exchange pattern is the best pattern for this scenario because the security and monitoring system needs to provide a response message to the environment control system.

D. The request optional-response message exchange pattern is the best pattern for this scenario because the security and monitoring system may want to provide a response message to the environment control system.

E. The buffer-and-send message exchange pattern is the best pattern for this scenario because the messages from the environment control systems are grouped together and sent less frequently in larger messages thus reducing network traffic.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Which two statements are valid SOA infrastructure principles?

A. SOA infrastructure must be designed to enable point-to-point integration.

B. SOA Infrastructure must support all Services with standards-based interfaces, regardless of their choice of implementation technology.

C. SOA Infrastructure must be based on open standards. This supports a best-of-breed approach and prevents vendor lock in.

D. Multiple versions of a SOA Service must not be run concurrently.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 14:

The SOA infrastructure you are building requires dynamic Service binding for loose coupling and a standards based way of storing and accessing Service descriptions at run time. How will you Implement this with Oracle products?

A. Use Oracle Service Registry (OSR), which provides a robust UDDI registry for runtime metadata information including Service descriptions (WSDl), and policies (WS-Pollcy).

B. Use Oracle BPEL Process Manager to implement dynamic Service binding functionality and SOA Service catalog

C. Implement Service discovery and dynamic Service binding functionality using Oracle Business Process Management (OBPM) and Oracle Business Rules (OBR) products

D. This functionality is not available in any of the Oracle products out of the box.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

One of the goals of your newly formed SOA initiative is to speed up time to market for new and updated functionality. Which option best supports your goal?

A. Utilize Service composition to reuse and combine existing Services to form new more course grained functionality.

B. Utilize a common data model across all Services so that no data transformation is required when Services are reused.

C. Only deploy SOA Governance when you have 50 or more Services.

D. Utilize REST Services over SOAP-based Services because they are quicker to develop.

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

What tool can be used to deploy sandbox to 2 different Orgs?

A. Force.com Migration Tool

B. DataLoader

C. Import Wizard

D. ChangeSet

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

An Admin needs to create a validation rule when Amount is greater than or equal to $50000 and the custom field should not be blank. Custom field is a picklist. Choose 2

A. Amount >50000 andand ISBLANK(Picklist field)

B. Amount >50000 andand TEXT(Picklist field) = ” ”

C. Amount >50000 andand ISPICKVAL(Picklist field, ” “)

D. Amount >50000 andand (Picklist field) = ” ”

Correct Answer: BC


Question 3:

Vice President is on Vacation and he needs to approve a big deal more than 250,000$. What should be configured?

A. Enable Approval by Mobile

B. Approval by Email

C. Offline User

D. Salesforce for Outlook

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

What are the system prerequisites for Territory Management? Choose 2

A. Customizable Forecasting Enabled

B. Sales Teams Set up

C. Marketing Users enabled

D. Sandbox enabled

Correct Answer: AD


Question 5:

How can someone be an owner of a records of ACCOUNT without being a record creator?

A. User is Member of Queue

B. User is member of Account Team

C. User is above the owner in the role hierarchy

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

A user reports that a field can no longer be seen in the page layout. What can a system administrator use in order to troubleshoot this?

A. Setup audit trail

B. Field history tracking

C. System log

D. Field audit

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

A system admin found that there are accounts with the same name that are associated with contacts of the same name, too. What would be the sequence in merging these contacts into just one account?

A. Merge contacts and then merge accounts

B. Merge accounts. Contacts will be automatically merged.

C. Merge accounts and then merge contact

D. Its is not possible

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

AW Computing wants to identify If certain customer is eligible for a service contract based on product. How to check it?

A. Entitlements Only

B. Service Contracts with Entitlements

C. Service Contracts with Contract Line Items and Entitlements

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Universal Containers like to track Application Bugs within Salesforce. The company needs to track the bug\’s severity, type, status and description. Bugs should be related to Cases, but owner will be different than the owner of the case. How can the Universal Containers administrator meet these requirements?

A. Create a section on the case page layout

B. Create a field on cases

C. Create a custom object for bugs and relate it to cases

D. Create a relationship between the standard bug object and the standard case object

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

A Sales manager must be informed if an opportunity reaches 500,000$ mark. So that manager can check if they can approve it or not? Provided that once who is asking for approvals are chatter users. Choose 2

A. Big Deal Alert

B. Enable Chatter Post Notification

C. Enable Allow approval by Email

D. Approval Process by a chatter

Correct Answer: CD


Question 11:

How can we make sure that users are using a uniformed set of tagging when using Contents? Choose 3

A. Enable restricted tagging

B. Make sure to set specific taggings with the contributors

C. Create a picklist

D. Use Prepopulated tagging

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 12:

An Administrator is setting up a default schedule. The company sells widgets for $10 each and has yearly

contracts to deliver them on a weekly basis. Customer pays on a quarterly basis.

Which type of default schedule to be setup?

A. Default Quantity and Revenue Schedule

B. Default Quantity Schedule only

C. Default Revenue Schedule only

D. Default Delivery and Shipping Schedule

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

The VP of the company is always travelling and uses only an iPad for office communications. Employees, who are chatter users, needs to submit their quotes for approval by the VP. How will the system admin meet this? Choose 2

A. Enable Approval by Email

B. Enable Chatter

C. Configure Salesforce for Outlook

D. Enable Salesforce Mobile

Correct Answer: AB


Question 14:

Custom object with billing state, province and zip code. How we can make sure that Zip code is Correct as per billing State?

A. Create Validation rule and use VLOOKUP to check zip code against stored Billing State

B. Create Validation rule and use HLOOKUP to check zip code against stored Billing State

C. Create Workflow to automatically update Zip code from stored Billing State

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

How can a system administrator enrich data through social?

A. Use facebook to import educational background of the contact

B. Use the company\’s Facebook to share information

C. Use LinkedIn to view information of the contact

D. Use Twitter to view contact\’s tweet while viewing contact record

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

In a TCP packet filtering firewall, traffic is filtered based on specified session rules, such as when a session is initiated by a recognized computer.

Identify the level up to which the unknown traffic is allowed into the network stack.

A. Level 5 ?Application

B. Level 2 ?Data Link

C. Level 4 ?TCP

D. Level 3 ?Internet Protocol (IP)

Correct Answer: D

Reference:

http://books.google.com.pk/books?id=KPjLAyA7HgoCandpg=PA208andlpg=PA208anddq=TCP p acket filtering firewall level up to which the unknown traffic is allowed into the net work

stackandsource=blandots=zRrbchVYngandsig=q5G3T8lggTfAMNRkL7Kp0SRslHUandhl=enand sa=Xandei=5PUeVLSbC8TmaMzrgZgCandved=0CBsQ6AEwAA#v=onepageandq=TCP pack et filtering firewall level up to which%

20the unknown traffic is allowed into the network stackandf=false


Question 2:

Wireshark is a network analyzer. It reads packets from the network, decodes them, and presents them in an easy-to-understand format. Which one of the following is the command-line version of Wireshark, which can be used to capture the live packets from the wire or to read the saved capture files?

A. Tcpdump

B. Capinfos

C. Tshark

D. Idl2wrs

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

The objective of social engineering pen testing is to test the strength of human factors in a security chain within the organization. It is often used to raise the level of security awareness among employees.

The tester should demonstrate extreme care and professionalism during a social engineering pen test as it might involve legal issues such as violation of privacy and may result in an embarrassing situation for the organization.

Which of the following methods of attempting social engineering is associated with bribing, handing out gifts, and becoming involved in a personal relationship to befriend someone inside the company?

A. Accomplice social engineering technique

B. Identity theft

C. Dumpster diving

D. Phishing social engineering technique

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Which of the following contents of a pen testing project plan addresses the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats involved in the project?

A. Project Goal

B. Success Factors

C. Objectives

D. Assumptions

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Which of the following shields Internet users from artificial DNS data, such as a deceptive or mischievous address instead of the genuine address that was requested?

A. DNSSEC

B. Firewall

C. Packet filtering

D. IPSec

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://tools.ietf.org/html/draft-osterweil-dane-ipsec-01 (abstract, first para)


Question 6:

Which one of the following is a supporting tool for 802.11 (wireless) packet injections, it spoofs 802.11 packets to verify whether the access point is valid or not?

A. Airsnort

B. Aircrack

C. Airpwn

D. WEPCrack

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Which of the following is developed to address security concerns on time and reduce the misuse or threat of attacks in an organization?

A. Vulnerabilities checklists

B. Configuration checklists

C. Action Plan

D. Testing Plan

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

The SnortMain () function begins by associating a set of handlers for the signals, Snort receives. It does this using the signal () function. Which one of the following functions is used as a programspecific signal and the handler for this calls the DropStats() function to output the current Snort statistics?

A. SIGUSR1

B. SIGTERM

C. SIGINT

D. SIGHUP

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

In the TCP/IP model, the transport layer is responsible for reliability and flow control from source to the destination. TCP provides the mechanism for flow control by allowing the sending and receiving hosts to communicate. A flow control mechanism avoids the problem with a transmitting host overflowing the buffers in the receiving host.

Which of the following flow control mechanism guarantees reliable delivery of data?

A. Sliding Windows

B. Windowing

C. Positive Acknowledgment with Retransmission (PAR)

D. Synchronization

Correct Answer: C

Reference: http://condor.depaul.edu/jkristof/technotes/tcp.html (1.1.3 Reliability)


Question 10:

Metasploit framework in an open source platform for vulnerability research, development, and penetration testing. Which one of the following metasploit options is used to exploit multiple systems at once?

A. NinjaDontKill

B. NinjaHost

C. RandomNops

D. EnablePython

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

HTTP protocol specifies that arbitrary binary characters can be passed within the URL by using %xx notation, where \’xx\’ is the

A. ASCII value of the character

B. Binary value of the character

C. Decimal value of the character

D. Hex value of the character

Correct Answer: D

https://books.google.nl/books?id=0RfANAwOUdICandpg=PA720andlpg=PA720anddq=”xx no tation” binaryandsource=blandots=pGMqass7tiandsig=rnIg1xZ78ScUvuIlTmDY3r7REucandhl= nlandsa=Xandei=8C4dVYe1NorgasrzgoALandved=0CEQQ6AEwBQ#v=onepageandq=”xx n otation” binaryandf=false


Question 12:

Identify the transition mechanism to deploy IPv6 on the IPv4 network from the following diagram.

A. Translation

B. Tunneling

C. Dual Stacks

D. Encapsulation

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

James is testing the ability of his routers to withstand DoS attacks. James sends ICMP ECHO requests to the broadcast address of his network. What type of DoS attack is James testing against his network?

A. Smurf

B. Trinoo

C. Fraggle

D. SYN flood

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Vulnerability assessment is an examination of the ability of a system or application, including current security procedures and controls, to withstand assault. It recognizes, measures, and classifies security vulnerabilities in a computer system, network, and communication channels.

A vulnerability assessment is used to identify weaknesses that could be exploited and predict the effectiveness of additional security measures in protecting information resources from attack.

Which of the following vulnerability assessment technique is used to test the web server infrastructure for any misconfiguration and outdated content?

A. Passive Assessment

B. Host-based Assessment

C. External Assessment

D. Application Assessment

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

An attacker injects malicious query strings in user input fields to bypass web service authentication mechanisms and to access back-end databases. Which of the following attacks is this?

A. Frame Injection Attack

B. LDAP Injection Attack

C. XPath Injection Attack

D. SOAP Injection Attack

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: http://luizfirmino.blogspot.com/2011_09_01_archive.html