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Question 1:

What is the main purpose of the Arctic Temperature Control functionality?

A. To protect the camera electronics

B. To protect the camera mechanics

C. To protect the camera lens

D. To protect the camera power

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which is a benefit of using VLANs and IP subnets?

A. An encrypted communication link is established over the internet, allowing surveillance video to be securely viewed off-site

B. The network provides end-to-end encryption to prevent malicious users from intercepting network traffic

C. The network will only allow access from authorized devices, eliminating the risk that malicious users disconnect cameras to intercept network traffic

D. Network surveillance video can be kept separate from other network traffic, reducing the risk that malicious users will intercept it

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

In many places 24 V AC has been popular as a power source but now 12 V and 24 V DC is increasing in popularity because

A. There is more energy in DC.

B. It is easier to back-up DC with battery.

C. There is less power loss in cables with DC.

D. There is less risk for surge with DC.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

When initiating a surveillance project with a customer, which of the following should be considered first?

A. Understand which camera models to use

B. Understand the customer\’s technical knowledge

C. Understand the customer\’s goals and requirements

D. Understand the legal aspects for the installation

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Which of the following are outdoor rated products? (Choose two)

A. AXIS M3114-R

B. AXIS P3304-VR

C. AXIS P1344-E

D. AXIS P3344-VE

E. AXIS M1031-W

Correct Answer: CD


Question 6:

Which of the following allows customer to access between 2-4 channels of live and online stored video at any time?

A. AXIS Camera Station

B. AXIS Video Hosting System (AVHS)

C. AXIS Camera Management

D. AXIS Media Control

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which setting would best adjust a hard yellow tint as shown in the pictures below?

A. Image contrast

B. White balance

C. Color saturation

D. Image brightness

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Which is an impact on cameras that are operating above their specified temperature limit?

A. Noise is increased

B. Frame rate is reduced

C. Light sensitivity is decreased

D. Resolution is reduced

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which technology can a Video Management Software (VMS) partner incorporate to reduce the impact on recorded video during server maintenance?

A. Local storage at the camera

B. Meta data stream

C. AXIS Camera Application Platform (ACAP)

D. SNMP

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

A customer has a lot of motion blur on recordings from a fixed camera. What would be the most likely setting to address the blurring?

A. Gain level

B. Brightness

C. Backlight compensation

D. Shutter speed

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Which statement is true regarding H.264 and Motion JPEG?

A. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at high frame rates

B. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only scene complexity

C. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only Group of Video (GOV) setting

D. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at low frame rates

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which of the following will allow a customer to have a PTZ camera automatically change between three predefined positions?

A. Configure the camera\’s I/O ports to control the preset positions

B. Use the Guard Tour capability to switch between the preset positions

C. Switch between the predefined positions using a joystick

D. Use the auto tracking capability to switch between the preset positions

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

With Axis Coverage Shapes, the designer can

A. See the effect of furniture or other objects blocking field of view.

B. View how varying lighting conditions affect the image.

C. Create a 3D view of the scene the camera will capture.

D. Determine at what distance a person can be identified.

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Which is true about P-iris?

A. The P-iris makes use of a novel p-shaped blade that reduces complexity and cost while maintaining image quality

B. In bright situations. P-iris limits the closing of the iris to avoid blurring caused by diffraction when the iris opening becomes too small

C. The P-iris delivers the optimal depth of field by always using the smallest possible aperture for the available lightning

D. The P-iris makes use of a novel p-shaped blade that allows the iris to react to rapidly changing lighting conditions

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

The Axis pixel counter allows a user to

A. Convert pixels to actual distances.

B. Verify that the resolution requirements for a scene are met.

C. Determine the file size for each video frame.

D. Specify different exposure zones in a scene.

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

What syntax should you use to pass variable a and variable b in a QueryString?

A. Response.Transfer(“Webpage.aspx?a=1 b=2”)

B. Response.Redirect(“Webpage.aspx?a=1andb=2”)

C. Response.Redirect(“Webpage.aspx?a:1andb:2”)

D. Response.Transfer(“Webpage.aspx?a:1 b:2”)

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

You need to prevent an exception from stopping code execution on a Web page. Which type of statement should you use?

A. “Try…Then”

B. “If…Then…Else”

C. “Do…While”

D. “Try…Catch”

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

You are deploying your website to a web server.

You need to store several custom values so that the application will run correctly when deployed.

Which section of the Web.config file should you use to store the settings?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

What should you use to save Web application state information on the client side?

A. session state

B. application state

C. cache

D. cookies

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

You create a session variable. What is its initial value?

A. -1

B. blank

C. 0

D. null

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

You need to ensure that a page named 404.aspx is displayed for every 404 error on a Web site.

What should you do?

A. Create a 404 error handler on the home page.

B. Add a 404 item to the section of web.config.

C. Create a 404 error handler on the master page.

D. Set a session variable to monitor 404 error status.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

A Web page has an control named ddlCountries.

You need to refresh the Web page whenever a user selects a new item in ddlCountries.

Which property should you set on ddlCountries?

A. AutoSubmit=”true”

B. AutoRefresh=”true”

C. AutoPostBack=”true”

D. AutoUpdate=”true”

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

You are deploying your website to a web server.

You need to store several custom values so that the application will run correctly when deployed.

Which section of the Web.config file should you use to store the settings?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

You have an XML file that contains information about students. The XML file structure resembles the following XML markup segment:

Instructions: Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement. Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 10:

You have the following webpage and property page:

Instructions: Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement. Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 11:

A web server includes two web applications named WebApp1 and WebApp2. The WebApp2 and SubPage2 folders each contain a Web.confic file. Each configuration file contains an authorization element. The configuration is shown below:

Instructions: Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement. Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 12:

You need to write code that checks to see if the webpage has been posted back to the web server.

In which webpage lifecycle event should you insert the code?

Instructions: To answer, select the appropriate page lifecycle event in the answer area.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 13:

You are working as an intern for a web-based magazine.

Your webpage has been returning unexpected results.

You need to find the source of the problem.

Instructions: For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 14:

You have the following webpage:

Instructions: Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement. Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 15:

You have an XML file that contains information about students. The XML file structure resembles the following XML markup segment:

Instructions: Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


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Question 1:

View the Exhibits and examine the structures of the products, sales, and customers tables.

You need to generate a report that gives details of the customer\’s last name, name of the product, and the quantity sold for a customers in \’Tokyo\’. Which two queries give the required result?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: AC


Question 2:

View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS table.

You have been asked to produce a report on the customers table showing the customers details sorted in descending order of the city and in the descending order of their income level in each city. Which query would accomplish this task?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which two statements are true regarding subqueries?

A. A subquery can retrieve zero or more rows.

B. Only two subqueries can be placed at one level.

C. A subquery can be used only in SQL query statements.

D. A subquery can appear on either side of a comparison operator.

E. There is no limit on the number of subquery levels in the WHERE clause of a SELECT statement.

Correct Answer: AD

Using a Subquery to Solve a Problem

Suppose you want to write a query to find out who earns a salary greater than Abel\’s salary.

To solve this problem, you need two queries: one to find how much Abel earns, and a second query to find who earns more than that amount. You can solve this problem by combining the two queries, placing one query inside the other query.

The inner query (or subquery) returns a value that is used by the outer query (or main query).

Using a subquery is equivalent to performing two sequential queries and using the result of the first query as the search value in the second query.

Subquery Syntax

A subquery is a SELECT statement that is embedded in the clause of another SELECT statement. You can build powerful statements out of simple ones by using subqueries. They can be very useful when you need to select rows from a

table with a condition that depends on the data in the table itself.

You can place the subquery in a number of SQL clauses, including the following:

WHERE clause

HAVING clause

FROM clause

In the syntax:

operator includes a comparison condition such as >, =, or IN Note: Comparison conditions fall into two classes: single-row operators (>, =, >=, <, , <=) and multiple-row operators (IN, ANY, ALL, EXISTS). The subquery is often referred to

as a nested SELECT, sub-SELECT, or inner SELECT statement. The subquery generally executes first, and its output is used to complete the query condition for the main (or outer) query.

Guidelines for Using Subqueries

Enclose subqueries in parentheses. Place subqueries on the right side of the comparison condition for readability. (However, the subquery can appear on either side of the comparison operator.) Use single-row operators with single-row

subqueries and multiple- row operators with multiple-row subqueries.

Subqueries can be nested to an unlimited depth in a FROM clause but to “only” 255 levels in a WHERE clause. They can be used in the SELECT list and in the FROM, WHERE, and HAVING clauses of a query.


Question 4:

View the Exhibit and examine the data in the PROMO_CATEGORY and PROMO_COST columns of the PROMOTIONS table.

Evaluate the following two queries:

SQL>SELECT DISTINCT promo_category to_char(promo_cost)”code” FROM promotions

ORDER BY code;

SQL>SELECT DISTINCT promo_category promo_cost “code”

FROM promotions ORDER BY 1;

Which statement is true regarding the execution of the above queries?

A. Only the first query executes successfully.

B. Only the second query executes successfully.

C. Both queries execute successfully but give different results.

D. Both queries execute successfully and give the same result.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Examine the structure proposed for the transactions table:

Which two statements are true regarding the creation and storage of data in the above table structure?

A. The CUST_STATUS column would give an error.

B. The TRANS_VALIDITY column would give an error.

C. The CUST_STATUS column would store exactly one character.

D. The CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT column would not be able to store decimal values.

E. The TRANS_VALIDITY column would have a maximum size of one character.

F. The TRANS_DATE column would be able to store day, month, century, year, hour, minutes, seconds, and fractions of seconds

Correct Answer: BC

VARCHAR2(size)Variable-length character data (A maximum size must be specified:

minimum size is 1; maximum size is 4, 000.)

CHAR [(size)] Fixed-length character data of length size bytes (Default and minimum size is 1; maximum size is 2, 000.)

NUMBER [(p, s)] Number having precision p and scale s (Precision is the total number of decimal digits and scale is the number of digits to the right of the decimal point; precision can range from 1 to 38, and scale can range from ?4 to 127.)

DATE Date and time values to the nearest second between January 1, 4712 B.C., and December 31, 9999 A.D.


Question 6:

There is a simple view SCOTT.DEPT_VIEW on the table SCOTT.DEPT.

This insert fails with an error:

SQL> insert into dept_view values(\’SUPPORT\’,\’OXFORD\’); insert into dept_view values(\’SUPPORT\’,\’OXFORD\’)

*

ERROR at line 1:

ORA-01400: cannot insert NULL into (“SCOTT”.”DEPT”.”DEPTNO”)

What might be the problem?

A. The INSERT violates a constraint on the detail table.

B. The INSERT violates a constraint on the view.

C. The view was created as WITH READ ONLY.

D. The view was created as WITH CHECK OPTION.

Correct Answer: A

B is incorrect because constraints are enforced on detail tables, not on views. C and D are incorrect because the error message would be different.


Question 7:

You need to create a table for a banking application. One of the columns in the table has the following requirements:

1) You want a column in the table to store the duration of the credit period.

2) The data in the column should be stored in a format such that it can be easily added and subtracted with date data type without using conversion functions.

3) The maximum period of the credit provision in the application is 30 days.

4) The interest has to be calculated for the number of days an individual has taken a credit for.

Which data type would you use for such a column in the table?

A. DATE

B. NUMBER

C. TIMESTAMP

D. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND

E. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH

Correct Answer: D

INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND stores a period of time in terms of days, hours, minutes, and seconds. This data type is useful for representing the precise difference between two datetime values.

You can perform a number of arithmetic operations on date (DATE), timestamp (TIMESTAMP, TIMESTAMP WITH TIME ZONE, and TIMESTAMP WITH LOCAL TIME ZONE) and interval (INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND and INTERVAL YEAR

TO MONTH) data.

?It stores duration of the credit as days

?The format stored is numeric format, and you know that numeric values can be easily added and subtracted with date data type without using conversion functions (i.e. SELECT SYSDATE ?1 FROM DUAL;)

?The interest has to be calculated for the number of days an individual has taken a credit for, so it will be easy to calculate interest by using the interest rate and duration of the the credit which is numeric format.

References:


Question 8:

You need to list the employees in DEPARTMENT_ID 30 in a single row, ordered by HIRE_DATE. Examine the sample output: Which query will provide the required output?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

View the Exhibit and examine the data in the employees table:

You want to display all the employee names and their corresponding manager names. Evaluate the following query:

Which join option can be used in the blank in the above query to get the required output?

A. INNER JOIN

B. FULL OUTER JOIN

C. LEFT OUTER JOIN

D. RIGHT OUTER JOIN

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

View the Exhibit and examine the structures of the employees and departments tables.

You want to update the employees table as follows:

-Update only those employees who work in Boston or Seattle (locations 2900 and 2700).

-Set department_id for these employees to the department_id corresponding to London (location_id 2100).

-Set the employees\’ salary in iocation_id 2100 to 1.1 times the average salary of their department.

-Set the employees\’ commission in iocation_id 2100 to 1.5 times the average commission of their department.

You issue the following command:

What is the outcome?

A. It executes successfully and gives the correct result.

B. It executes successfully but does not give the correct result.

C. It generates an error because a subquery cannot have a join condition in an update statement.

D. It generates an error because multiple columns (SALARY, COMMISSION) cannot be specified together in an update statement.

Correct Answer: B

Not that employees is used both in the first line (UPDATE employees) and later (FROM employees, departments). This would not cause the correct output. Instead aliases should be use.

The following would be the correct query:

UPDATE employees a

SET department_id =

(SELECT department_id

FROM departments

WHERE location_id = \’2100\’),

(salary, commission_pct) =

(SELECT 1.1*AVG(salary), 1.5*AVG(commission_pct) FROM employees b

WHERE a.department_id = b.department_id)

WHERE department_id IN

(SELECT department_id

FROM departments

WHERE location_id = 2900

OR location_id = 2700);

References:


Question 11:

You want to create a sales table with the following column specifications and data types: SALESID: Number STOREID: Number ITEMID: Number QTY: Number, should be set to 1 when no value is specified SLSDATE: Date, should be set to current date when no value is specified PAYMENT: Characters up to 30 characters, should be set to CASH when no value is specified Which statement would create the table?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

To specify the default value of payment field you must use DEFAULT \’CASH\’.

References:


Question 12:

You issue the following command to drop the products table:

SQL> DROP TABLE products;

Which three statements are true about the implication of this command? (Choose three.)

A. All data along with the table structure is deleted.

B. A pending transaction in the session is committed.

C. All indexes on the table remain but they are invalidated.

D. All views and synonyms remain but they are invalidated.

E. All data in the table is deleted but the table structure remains.

Correct Answer: ABD

A: The DROP TABLE statement moves a table or object table to the recycle bin.

B: If a user issues a DDL (CREATE, ALTER, or DROP) or DCL (GRANT or REVOKE) command, the transaction in progress (if any) will

Incorrect:

Not C: Dropping a table invalidates dependent objects, such as indexes and constraints.

References:


Question 13:

Which two statements are true regarding single row functions?

A. MOD: returns the quotient of a division

B. TRUNC: can be used with number and date values

C. CONCAT: can be used to combine any number of values

D. SYSDATE: returns the database server current date and time

E. INSTR: can be used to find only the first occurrence of a character in a string

F. TRIM: can be used to remove all the occurrences of a character from a string

Correct Answer: BD

ROUND: Rounds value to a specified decimal

TRUNC: Truncates value to a specified decimal

MOD: Returns remainder of division

SYSDATE is a date function that returns the current database server date and time.

Date-Manipulation Functions

Date functions operate on Oracle dates. All date functions return a value of the DATE data type except MONTHS_BETWEEN, which returns a numeric value. MONTHS_BETWEEN(date1, date2): Finds the number of months between date1

and date2. The result can be positive or negative. If date1 is later than date2, the result is positive; if date1 is earlier than date2, the result is negative. The noninteger part of the result represents a portion of the month.

ADD_MONTHS(date, n): Adds n number of calendar months to date. The value of n must be an integer and can be negative.

NEXT_DAY(date, \’char\’): Finds the date of the next specified day of the week (\’char\’) following date. The value of char may be a number representing a day or a character string.

LAST_DAY(date): Finds the date of the last day of the month that contains date The above list is a subset of the available date functions. ROUND and TRUNC number functions can also be used to manipulate the date values as shown

below:

ROUND(date[, \’fmt\’]): Returns date rounded to the unit that is specified by the format model fmt. If the format model fmt is omitted, date is rounded to the nearest day. TRUNC(date[, \’fmt\’]): Returns date with the time portion of the day

truncated to the unit that is specified by the format model fmt. If the format model fmt is omitted, date is truncated to the nearest day.

The CONCAT Function

The CONCAT function joins two character literals, columns, or expressions to yield one larger character expression. Numeric and date literals are implicitly cast as characters when they occur as parameters to the CONCAT function. Numeric

or date expressions are evaluated before being converted to strings ready to be concatenated. The CONCAT function takes two parameters. Its syntax is CONCAT(s1, s2), where s1 and s2 represent string literals, character column values, or

expressions resulting in character values. The INSTR(source string, search item, [start position], [nth occurrence of search item]) function returns a number that represents the position in the source string, beginning from the given start

position, where the nth occurrence of the search item begins:

instr(\’http://www.domain.com\’, \’.\’, 1, 2) = 18

The TRIM function literally trims off leading or trailing (or both) character strings from a given source string:


Question 14:

View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the promotions table.

Evaluate the following SQL statement:

Which statement is true regarding the outcome of the above query?

A. It shows COST_REMARK for all the promos in the table.

B. It produces an error because the SUBQUERY gives an error.

C. It shows COST_REMARK for all the promos in the promo category \’TV\’

D. It produces an error because SUBQUERIES cannot be used with the case expression.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

You need to produce a report where each customer\’s credit limit has been incremented by $1000. In the output, the customer\’s last name should have the heading Name and the incremented credit limit should be labeled New Credit Limit. The column headings should have only the first letter of each word in uppercase.

Which statement would accomplish this requirement?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: C

A column alias:

-Renames a column heading

-Is useful with calculations

-Immediately follows the column name (There can also be the optional AS keyword between the column name and the alias.)

-Requires double quotation marks if it contains spaces or special characters, or if it is case sensitive.


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Question 1:

When working with Essbase, versions of the tree hierarchy as defined in the General Ledger Cloud are not available in the Essbase balances cube. What should you do to correct this situation?

A. Make sure to flatten the rows of the tree version

B. Make sure the tree is active

C. Make sure the tree version was published successfully

D. Redeploy the chart of accounts

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

You want to monitor the close process of all your financial subledgers and ledgers. How can you quickly obtain this information?

A. Use the Manage Accounting Periods page to view the status of all subledgers and ledgers

B. Access each subledgers\’ calendar and General Ledger\’s Manage Accounting Periods page to view the status of each period

C. Run Closing Status reports

D. Use Close Monitor in General Accounting Dashboard

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Your customer has three legal entities, 50 departments, and 10,000 natural accounts. They use intercompany entries. What is Oracle\’s recommended practice when implementing a new chart of accounts? How many segments and what segment qualifiers should be used?

A. Define three segments for the company, department, and natural account. The qualifiers for the first segment should be primary balancing segment and intercompany segment, cost center segment, and natural account segment, respectively.

B. Define four segments for the company, department, natural account, and intercompany segment. The qualifiers should be primary balancing segment, cost center segment, and natural account segment, and intercompany segment, respectively.

C. Define three segments for the company, department, and natural account. The qualifiers should be primary balancing segment, cost center segment, and natural account segment, respectively.

D. Define five segments for the company, department, natural account, intercompany, and future use segment. The qualifiers should be primary balancing segment, cost center segment, natural account segment, intercompany segment, and no qualifier, respectively.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

You want to define an allocation rule where segment values are constants for rules and formulas. What should you do?

A. Never use the Outer Point of View (POV)

B. Always use the Outer Point of View (POV)

C. Specify Run Time Prompts (RTP)

D. Only specify segment values in formulas

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Your customer is implementing budgetary control with encumbrance accounting. Your customer has businesses in Australia, New Zealand, and Singapore with a ledger in each country with a Corporate chart of account instance that has four segments. Which three statements are true regarding the creation of a control budget? (Choose three.)

A. The control budget structure has all the chart of account segments as budget segments

B. Control budgets are always absolute to generate encumbrance accounting

C. A control budget is associated to a ledger and creates three control budgets for Australia, New Zealand, and Singapore

D. A control budget can allow override rules only if the control level is absolute

E. A control budget can be associated with a different calendar than accounting calendar

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 6:

You need to define multiple allocation rules as efficiency as possible.

Which three components can be reused across allocation rules? (Choose three.)

A. Point of View (POV)

B. Formulas

C. Run Time Prompts (RTP)

D. RuleSets

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 7:

What are the two possible reasons for encumbrance created on the purchase order to go back to the budget or funds availability? (Choose two.)

A. The purchase order is canceled or finally closed or rejected without performing any receipt or invoice

B. When the purchase order is set to accrue at receipt and partially received, then canceled or finally closed, encumbrance goes back to the extent of the unreceived amount

C. The requisition reserved successfully undergoes amendment and is rejected in the reapproval

D. When the requisition is set to accrue at period end and partially billed and then canceled or finally closed, encumbrance goes back to the budget to the extent of the unbilled amount

Correct Answer: AB


Question 8:

Your customer has many eliminating entries to eliminate intercompany balances. The General Ledger does not include a purpose-built Consolidation feature. How would you automate the process of creating eliminating entries, assuming your customer is not using Oracle Hyperion Financial Close Management?

A. Use the General Ledger\’s Calculation Manager to define an allocation definition to eliminate entries that you can generate every period

B. Use the spreadsheet template that is accessed from the “Create Journal in Spreadsheet” task and import the spreadsheet with the eliminating entries every period

C. There is no way to automate this process if the customer is not using Oracle Hyperion Financial Close Management

D. Create a manual journal that includes the eliminating entries, and then create a copy of the journal batch every period

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

You want to specify Intercompany System Options. Which three factors should you consider? (Choose three.)

A. the approvers who will approve intercompany transactions

B. whether to allow receivers to reject intercompany transactions

C. whether to enforce an enterprise-wide currency or allow intercompany transactions in local currencies

D. automatic or manual batch numbering and the maximum transaction amount

E. automatic or manual batch numbering and the minimum transaction amount

Correct Answer: BCE


Question 10:

Encumbrance accounting is enabled for your ledger. An encumbrance journal dated 3/15/16 was recorded for a purchase order. The invoice was entered on 5/5/16, but the invoice accounting date was 4/20/16. The encumbrance journal for

liquidating the purchase order encumbrance is dated 5/5/16.

What is causing this?

A. The actual accounting date was set up under the encumbrance accounting Default Date Rule

B. The current transaction accounting date was set up under the encumbrance accounting Default Date Rule

C. The subledger accounting option is set to system date

D. The system date was set up under the encumbrance accounting Default Date Rule

E. The prior related transaction accounting date was set up under the encumbrance accounting Default Date Rule

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Account combinations can be created and/or modified using the Import Account Combinations file-based data import (FBDI). Which represents the appropriate upload steps?

A. Submit the Import Account Combinations process, then insert rows into the GL_MULTI_COMBINATIONS_INT table using the FBDI template.

B. Insert rows into the GL_BULK_COMBINATIONS_INT table using the FBDI template and then submit the Import Account Combinations process.

C. Insert rows into the GL_MULTI_COMBINATIONS_INT table using the FBDI template and then submit the Import Account Combinations process.

D. Submit the Import Account Combinations process, then insert rows into the GL_BULK_COMBINATIONS_INT table using the FBDI template.

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

You are defining an income statement report. You want to allow viewers of the report to be able to drill down from report balances to the underlying transactions. What so you need to enable?

A. Drill Through in Grid Properties

B. Nothing. All report balances are drillable in all FR Studio reports

C. Allow Expansion

D. Report Functions

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

In Financial Cloud, which three reporting tools can be used to access General Ledger balances? (Choose three.)

A. Application Composer

B. Oracle Enterprise Repository

C. Oracle Transactions Business Intelligence

D. Financial Reporting Studio

E. Smart View

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 14:

Your customer wants to create fully balanced balance sheets for the Company, Line of Business, and Product segments for both financial and management reporting. What is Oracle\’s recommended method for doing this?

A. Create a segment that acts as the primary balancing segment and create values that represent a concatenation of all three business dimensions

B. Use account hierarchies to create different hierarchies for different purposes and use those hierarchies for reporting

C. Create three segments for the Company, Line of Business, and Product segments and qualify them as primary balancing segment, second, and third balancing segments, respectively

D. Create two segments where the first segment represents the concatenation of Company and Line of Business, and then enable secondary tracking for the Product segment

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Your customer has enabled budgetary control for purchase orders. They have a purchase order for $1,000 USD which is fully reserved. An invoice for $600 is entered and matched to the purchase order, and the purchase order is closed for

further invoicing.

What happens to the remaining $400 USD?

A. Invoice type will have less funds available by $400 USD

B. $400 USD will be expired and not available for use

C. $400 USD will be added back to available funds

D. Only obligation type will have $400 USD funds available

E. Manual encumbrance journal needs to be entered in General Ledger to release the budget amount of $400 USD

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

DRAG DROP

Match each Workspace ONE Intelligence Security Risk Module tab on the left with its description on the right by dragging the tab\’s name into the correct box.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 2:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the Cyber Kill events on the left into their proper sequential order on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 3:

Which VMware product allows you to query an endpoint like a database?

A. VMware NSX-T Data Center

B. VMware Carbon Black Audit and Remediation

C. VMware Workspace ONE UEM

D. VMware Carbon Black Endpoint Standard

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Which three are industry best practices of Zero Trust framework? (Choose three.)

A. Employee machines need to have a passcode profile setup

B. Employee machines on Internal network are trusted and have access to all internal resources

C. Employee machines are checked for compliance before they get access to applications

D. Employees are not required to provide MFA to access internal resources over VPN

E. Employees get access to only the required resources to get their job done

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 5:

Which three default connectors are available in Workspace ONE Intelligence to execute automation actions? (Choose three.)

A. ServiceNow

B. vRealize Operations Manager

C. Slack

D. Log Insight

E. Workspace ONE UEM

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is true about the firewall rule?

A. It is a gateway firewall applied to a Tier-0 gateway that drops traffic on port 22

B. It is a distributed firewall applied to App-Services, DB-Servers and Web-Servers that rejects traffic on port 22

C. It is a distributed firewall applied to App-Services, DB-Servers and Web-Servers that drops traffic on port 22

D. It is a gateway firewall applied to a Tier-0 gateway that rejects traffic on port 22

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Which four alert filters are available in the VMware Carbon Black Cloud Investigate page? (Choose four.)

A. Watchlist

B. Target Value

C. Policy

D. Security Alert List

E. Effective Reputation

F. Alert Severity

Correct Answer: ABCF


Question 8:

Which is a common solution to implement for inbound network attacks?

A. Load Balancer

B. Firewall

C. Proxy

D. Reverse Proxy

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Which of the following is true about VMware Carbon Black Cloud Enterprise EDR watchlists?

A. They only update annually

B. You cannot customize them

C. They are made up of reports

D. Each watchlist is user specific

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Carbon-Black-EDR/7.5/VMware Carbon Black% 20EDR 7.5 User Guide.pdf


Question 10:

A technician has been asked to confirm a specific browser extension does not exist on any endpoint in their environment.

Which is the VMware Carbon Black tool to use for this task?

A. Enterprise EDR

B. EDR

C. Audit and Remediation

D. Endpoint Standard

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which three Workspace ONE UEM capabilities are used to configure security policies on Windows 10 desktops? (Choose three.)

A. Application Profiles

B. Custom XML

C. Custom Attributes

D. Baselines

E. Native Profiles

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 12:

Which would require a Layer 7 Firewall?

A. block a specific port

B. block a subnet range

C. block a host

D. block a specific application

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

VMware\’s Intrinsic Security layer includes functionality for which control points?

A. networks, workloads, endpoints, identity, and clouds

B. applications, workloads, devices, identity, virtual infrastructure

C. networks, containers, devices, users, and VMware Cloud

D. applications, users, networks, data center perimeter, vSphere

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.globalknowledge.com/en-gb/resources/articles/what-is-intrinsic-security


Question 14:

Which three are key features of VMware Carbon Black Cloud Enterprise EDR? (Choose three.)

A. self-service security remediation

B. continuous and centralized recording

C. attack chain visualization and search

D. live response for remote remediation

E. frequent Antivirus pattern updates

Correct Answer: BCD

Reference: https://www.vmware.com/content/dam/digitalmarketing/vmware/en/pdf/docs/vmwcb-enterpriseedr-datasheet.pdf (2)


Question 15:

What are three core characteristics of VMware\’s Intrinsic Security solution? (Choose three.)

A. integrated

B. extensible

C. unified

D. content-centric

E. centrally managed

F. built-in

Correct Answer: ACF


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Question 1:

Which of the following is NOT included in a Snort rule header?

A. protocol

B. action

C. source IP address

D. packet byte offset

E. source port

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Which files are read by the lsdev command? (Please specify THREE answers)

A. /proc/dma

B. /proc/filesystems

C. /proc/interrupts

D. /proc/ioports

E. /proc/swaps

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 3:

The following data is some of the output produced by a program. Which program produced this output?

strftime (” Thu”, 1024, “%a”, 0xb7f64380) =4 fwrite (“Thu”, 3, 1, 0xb7f614e0) =1 fputc (\’ \’, 0xb7f614e0) =32 strftime (” Feb”, 1024, ” %b”, 0xb7f64380) =4 fwrite (“Feb”, 3, 1, 0xb7f614e0) =1 fputc (\’ \’, 0xb7f614e0) =32 fwrite (“19”, 2, 1, 0xb7f614e0) =1

A. lsof

B. ltrace

C. nm

D. strace

E. time

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

DNSSEC is used for?

A. Encrypted DNS queries between nameservers.

B. Cryptographic authentication of DNS zones.

C. Secondary DNS queries for local zones.

D. Defining a secure DNS section.

E. Querying a secure DNS section.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which network service or protocol is used by sendmail for RBLs (Realtime Blackhole Lists)?

A. RBLP

B. SMTP

C. FTP

D. HTTP

E. DNS

Correct Answer: E


Question 6:

What is the correct format for an ftpusers file entry?

A. Use only one username on each line.

B. Add a colon after each username.

C. Add a semicolon after each username.

D. Add ALLOW after each username.

E. Add DENY after each username.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

A system monitoring service checks the availability of a database server on port 5432 of destination.example.com. The problem with this is that the password will be sent in clear text. When using an SSH tunnel to solve the problem, which command should be used?

A. ssh -1 5432:127.0.0.1:5432 destination.example. com

B. ssh -L 5432:destination.example.com:5432 127.0.0.1

C. ssh -L 5432:127.0.0.1:5432 destination.example.com

D. ssh -x destination.example.com:5432

E. ssh -R 5432:127.0.0.1:5432 destination.example.com

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

If the command arp -f is run, which file will be read by default?

A. /etc/hosts

B. /etc/ethers

C. /etc/arp.conf

D. /etc/networks

E. /var/cache/arp

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

What command is used to add a route to the 192.168.4.0/24 network via 192.168.0.2?

A. route add – network 192.168.4.0 netmask 255.255.255.0 gw 192.168.0.2

B. route add – net 192.168.4.0/24 gw 192.168.0.2

C. route add – network 192.168.4.0/24 192.168.0.2

D. route add – net 192.168.4.0 netmask 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2

E. route add – net 192.168.4.0 netmask 255.255.255.0 gw 192.168.0.2

Correct Answer: E


Question 10:

What could be a reason for invoking vsftpd from (x) inetd?

A. It\’s not a good idea, because (x) inetd is not secure

B. Running vsftpd in standalone mode is only possible as root, which could be a security risk

C. vsftpd cannot be started in standalone mode

D. (x) inetd has more access control capabilities

E. (x) inetd is needed to run vsftpd in a chroot jail

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

How can a user\’s default shell be checked, by querying an NIS server?

A. ypquery [email protected]

B. ypgrep user example.com

C. ypmatch -d example.com user passwd

D. ypcat -d example.com user

E. ypq @example.com user shell

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

What command can be used to check the Samba configuration file?

A. testconfig

B. testsmbconfig

C. smbtestcfg

D. smbtestparm

E. testparm

Correct Answer: E


Question 13:

Which of the following are Samba security modes or levels? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A. ads

B. data

C. ldap

D. network

E. share

Correct Answer: AE


Question 14:

If there is no access directive, what is the default setting for OpenLDAP?

A. access to * by anonymous read by * none

B. access to * by anonymous read by * read

C. access to * by anonymous auth by * read

D. access to * by anonymous write by * read

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which configuration parameter on a Postfix server modifies only the sender address and not the recipient address?

A. alias_maps

B. alias_rewrite_maps

C. sender_canonical_maps

D. sender_rewrite_maps

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

Which ITIL guiding principle recommends using existing services, processes and tools when improving services?

A. Progress iteratively with feedback

B. Keep is simple and practical

C. Start where you are

D. Focus on value

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which practice has a purpose that includes ensuring that risks have been properly assessed?

A. Service configuration management

B. Problem management

C. Service level management

D. Change control

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

When should a full risk assessment and authorization be carried out for a standard change?

A. Each time the standard change is implemented

B. When the procedure for the standard change is created

C. At least once a year

D. When an emergency change is requested

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Which statement about emergency changes is CORRECT?

A. The testing of emergency can be eliminated in order to implement the change quickly

B. The assessment and authorization of emergency changes is expedited to ensure they can be implemented quickly

C. Emergency changes should be authorized and implemented as service requests

D. Emergency changes must be fully documented before authorization and implementation

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which practice coordinates the classification, ownership and communication of service requests and incidents?

A. Supplier management

B. Service desk

C. Problem management

D. Relationship management

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

What is warranty?

A. Assurance that a product or service will meet agreed requirements

B. The amount of money spent on a specific activity or resource

C. The functionality offered by a product or service to meet a particular need

D. The perceived benefits, usefulness and importance of something

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Which is part of service provision?

A. The management of resources configured to deliver the service

B. The management of resources needed to consume the service

C. The grouping of one or more services based on one or more products

D. The joint activities performed to ensure continual value co-creation

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Which statement about a `continual improvement register\’ is CORRECT?

A. It should be managed at the senior level of the organization

B. It should be used to capture user demand

C. There should only be one for the whole organization

D. It should be re-prioritized as ideas are documented

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

What are \’engage\’, `plan\’ and `improve\’ examples of?

A. Service value chain activities

B. Service level management

C. Service value chain inputs

D. Change control

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Which statement about outcomes is CORRECT?

A. An outcome can be enabled by more than one output

B. Outcomes are how the service performs

C. An output can be enabled by one or more outcomes

D. An outcome is a tangible or intangible activity

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which statement about service desks is CORRECT?

A. The service desk should work in close collaboration with support and development teams

B. The service desk should rely on self-service portals instead of escalation to support teams

C. The service desk should remain isolated from technical support teams

D. The service desk should escalate all technical issues to support and development teams

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which practice updates information relating to symptoms and business impact?

A. Service level management

B. Change control

C. Service request management

D. Incident management

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Which is included in the purpose of the `design and transition\’ value chain activity?

A. Ensuring that service components are available when needed

B. Providing transparency and good stakeholder relationships

C. Supporting services according to specifications

D. Continually meeting stakeholder expectations for costs

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Which practice has a purpose to support the quality of the service by handling all agreed user initiated service requests?

A. Change control

B. IT asset management

C. Service desk

D. Service request management

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Which is NOT a component of the service value system?

A. The guiding principles

B. Governance

C. Practices

D. The four dimensions of service management

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

What feature of Decryption Collection allows an investigator to crack a password as quickly as possible?

A. Cracks every password in 10 minutes

B. Distribute processing over 16 or fewer computers

C. Support for Encrypted File System

D. Support for MD5 hash verification

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Under confession, an accused criminal admitted to encrypting child pornography pictures and then hiding them within other pictures. What technique did the accused criminal employ?

A. Typography

B. Steganalysis

C. Picture encoding

D. Steganography

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

How many times can data be written to a DVD R disk?

A. Twice

B. Once

C. Zero

D. Infinite

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

George was recently fired from his job as an IT analyst at Pitts and Company in Dallas Texas. His main duties as an analyst were to support the company Active Directory structure and to create network polices. George now wants to break into the company network by cracking some ofcompany? Active Directory structure and to create network polices. George now wants to break into the company? network by cracking some of the service accounts he knows about. Which password cracking technique should George use in this situation?

A. Brute force attack

B. Syllable attack

C. Rule-based attack

D. Dictionary attack

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

What must be obtained before an investigation is carried out at a location?

A. Search warrant

B. Subpoena

C. Habeas corpus

D. Modus operandi

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Which legal document allows law enforcement to search an office, place of business, or other locale for evidence relating to an alleged crime?

A. Search warrant

B. Subpoena

C. Wire tap

D. Bench warrant

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

A forensics investigator is searching the hard drive of a computer for files that were recently moved to the Recycle Bin. He searches for files in C:\RECYCLED using a command line tool but does not find anything. What is the reason for this?

A. He should search in C:\Windows\System32\RECYCLED folder

B. The Recycle Bin does not exist on the hard drive

C. The files are hidden and he must use switch to view themThe files are hidden and he must use ? switch to view them

D. Only FAT system contains RECYCLED folder and not NTFS

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

At what layer does a cross site scripting attack occur on?

A. Presentation

B. Application

C. Session

D. Data Link

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

To preserve digital evidence, an investigator should ____________

A. Make two copies of each evidence item using a single imaging tool

B. Make a single copy of each evidence item using an approved imaging tool

C. Make two copies of each evidence item using different imaging tools

D. Only store the original evidence item

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Where is the default location for Apache access logs on a Linux computer?

A. usr/local/apache/logs/access_log

B. bin/local/home/apache/logs/access_log

C. usr/logs/access_log

D. logs/usr/apache/access_log

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

What type of attack sends SYN requests to a target system with spoofed IP addresses?

A. SYN flood

B. Ping of death

C. Cross site scripting

D. Land

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Paraben Lockdown device uses which operating system to write hard drive data?Paraben? Lockdown device uses which operating system to write hard drive data?

A. Mac OS

B. Red Hat

C. Unix

D. Windows

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Harold is a security analyst who has just run the rdisk /s command to grab the backup SAM file on a computer. Where should Harold navigate on the computer to find the file?

A. %systemroot%\LSA

B. %systemroot%\system32\drivers\etc

C. %systemroot%\repair

D. %systemroot%\system32\LSA

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

What is kept in the following directory? HKLM\SECURITY\Policy\Secrets

A. IAS account names and passwords

B. Service account passwords in plain text

C. Local store PKI Kerberos certificates

D. Cached password hashes for the past 20 users

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Harold wants to set up a firewall on his network but is not sure which one would be the most appropriate. He knows he needs to allow FTP traffic to one of the servers on his network, but he wants to only allow FTP-PUT. Which firewall would be most appropriate for Harold? needs?

A. Packet filtering firewall

B. Circuit-level proxy firewall

C. Application-level proxy firewall

D. Data link layer firewall

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

Which HPE 3PAR feature improves CPU utilization, reduces latency, and improves IOPS?

A. Zero Detect

B. Persistent Cache

C. Express Indexing

D. Express Writes

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

While demonstrating an HPE 3PAR StoreServ 9450 array, the customer asks you to demonstrate the File Persona features.

Which objects do you need to create to demonstrate these features? (Choose two.)

A. File share

B. Storage container

C. Host

D. Remote copy group

E. Virtual file server

Correct Answer: AE


Question 3:

Which protocols are currently used in the front end by HPE 3PAR StoreServ systems? (Choose two.)

A. iSCSI

B. Infiniband

C. SAS

D. NVMe

E. FC

Correct Answer: AE


Question 4:

A customer needs to expand an HPE StoreVirtual VSA based cluster with two additional VSA instances.

What do you need to consider when designing the new VSA instances?

A. They will require downtime to re-balance the resources within the cluster.

B. They must be configured into a new management group.

C. They must be of equal or greater capacity than the existing instances in a cluster.

D. They can only have equal to or smaller capacity compared to the existing instances.

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

A customer with an HPE 3PAR StoreServ needs to upgrade their aging backup solution to a more advanced solution using snapshots and dedupluication.

Which HPE products would meet the customer\’s needs? (Choose two.)

A. HPE 3PAR File Persona

B. HPE StoreEver

C. HPE 3PAR Remote Copy

D. HPE StoreOnce

E. HPE Recovery Manager Central

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

A customer\’s growing environment has a mix of HPE 3PAR StoreServ 8200 with 10K HDD, HPE 3PAR StoreServ 9450, and HPE 3PAR StoreServ 2080D with 3 tiers of storage deployed in the same data center. The customer needs to optimize performance by being able to move workloads to the most appropriate array as needed.

Which solution enables the customer to achieve this goal?

A. HPE OneView to automate cpg migration based on user defined policies.

B. HPE 3PAR Remote Copy in a Synchronous Long Distance topology.

C. HPE Smart SAN to provide autonomic federated management.

D. HPE 3PAR Peer Motion with SSMC to manage storage federation.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Which type of networking switch handles both Ethernet and Fibre Channel traffic?

A. edge

B. virtual

C. director

D. converged

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Which file protocols are commonly used in HPE StoreOnce environment? (Choose two.)

A. CIFS

B. NTFS

C. VFS

D. ZFS

E. NFS

Correct Answer: AE


Question 9:

A customer wants to implement a management and monitoring tool for an HPE B-series SAN switch environment. You plan to recommend the HPE SAN Network Advisor.

Which information about the customer\’s environment will help you to decide which edition to recommend?

A. FCIP support

B. Amount of used fabrics

C. FCoE support

D. Fabric OS version

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

A customer has a SAN infrastructure with an HPE C-Class blade enclosure, and a mix of ProLiant G7, Gen8 and Gen9 servers. They require a new storage platform.

How can you confirm the new storage array will be supported in the existing environment?

A. Design an array with an older version of the firmware to ensure compatibility.

B. Document existing server and SAN information, and consult SPOCK to ensure firmware compatibility.

C. Design an array with the latest firmware, and recommend that the customer engage HPE PointNext to upgrade the existing hardware.

D. Check recommended firmware levels in the HP SAN Design Reference Guide to ensure firmware compatibility.

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

You need to add SSD drives to a production HPE 3PAR StoreServ array configured with Adaptive Flash Cache (AFC).

What do you need to consider?

A. Online expansion is not supported if the AFC is running in simulation mode.

B. System performance might be affected during activation of the additional resources for AFC.

C. The system will automatically re-balance to use the additional resources for AFC.

D. The RAID configuration for the SSD drives might need adjustment if you want to use them for AFC.

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Which resource provides configurations for HPE tested and referenced configurations in a software-defined storage environment?

A. HPE Storage Sizer

B. One Config Advanced

C. NinjaStars

D. StoreVirtual VSA Ready Nodes

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

A customer is concerned about media and transmission errors caused by any component in the I/O stack from the server host bus adapter (HBA) into the HPE 3PAR StoreServ ports.

Which feature will address the customer\’s concern?

A. Persistent Checksum

B. Persistent Cache

C. Peer Persistence

D. Persistent Ports

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

A customer has a large deployment of HPE Synergy compute modules, HPE 3PAR StoreServ storage, and HPE StoreOnce systems in a single data center. They are concerned about the risk of data loss due to site disaster.

What is the reason to propose HPE CloudBank?

A. To easily move workloads to AWS or Azure in the event of site disaster.

B. To improve RPO/RTO objectives by automating snapshot-based integrating between 3PAR and StoreOnce.

C. To regularly send backups to the cloud for the purposes of DR protection.

D. To leverage 3PAR snapshots and utilize StoreOnce recovery capabilities to minimize data loss and downtime.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Where does HPE 3PAR StoreServ Data-at-Rest Encryption occur?

A. ASIC

B. physical disk

C. processor

D. host

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

Regarding Quality of Service, what are three IOPS parameters in the NetApp Element software that are defined per volume? (Choose three.)

A. Standard IOPS

B. Extreme IOPS

C. Maximum IOPS

D. Minimum IOPS

E. Burst IOPS

Correct Answer: CDE

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/sfe-115/topic/com.netapp.doc.sfe-ug/GUID-A0C92EA6-37D8-44C4BF6B-464817D6CB0A.html


Question 2:

What provides dynamic storage orchestration services for Kubernetes workloads?

A. Ansible

B. SANtricity OS

C. Trident

D. ONTAP software

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://netapp.io/persistent-storage-provisioner-for-kubernetes/


Question 3:

Where would you create an export policy?

A. in a FlexVol volume

B. in a RAID group

C. in a Storage VM

D. in an aggregate

Correct Answer: C

Reference: http://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=/com.netapp.doc.pow-nfs-cg/GUID55EF7FD7-4904-404A-9D53-93ECFFB00B22.html


Question 4:

Which statement is correct about block and file data access?

A. With block data access, the host OS owns the file system; with file data access. ONTAP owns the file system

B. With block data access, ONTAP owns the file system; with file data access, the host OS owns the file system

C. With block and file data access, the host OS owns the file system

D. With block and file data access, ONTAP owns the file system

Correct Answer:


Question 5:

Your users require both NFS and SMB file services. You do not want to manage the storage ONTAP System Manager or the command line interface.

In this scenario, which two products would satisfy these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Amazon S3 Glacier

B. Azure Blob Storage

C. Azure NetApp Files

D. Cloud Volumes Service

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-netapp-files/azure-netapp-files-faqs https://www.netapp.com/knowledge-center/what-is-cloud-volumes/


Question 6:

You are using NetApp Cloud Volumes ONTAP for AWS. You need to have data protection for your cloud data.

What NetApp service would you use to satisfy your requirements?

A. Cloud Sync

B. Cloud Volumes Service for AWS

C. Cloud Backup

D. SaaS Backup

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.netapp.com/cloud-services/cloud-volumes-ontap/aws/


Question 7:

What are three types of data access? (Choose three.)

A. cloud

B. RAID

C. file

D. block

E. object

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 8:

Which two NetApp features encrypt the storage data? (Choose two.)

A. Trusted Platform Module (TPM)

B. Encrypted File System (EFS)

C. NetApp Volume Encryption

D. NetApp Storage Encryption

Correct Answer: CD


Question 9:

You have multiple on-premises applications writing to ONTAP LUNs and NFS exports. You want to build a disaster recovery solution from your on-premises ONTAP systems to your Microsoft Azure Resource Group while preserving the data efficiency and access properties for block and file.

Which cloud storage destination would you use in Microsoft Azure to accomplish this task?

A. Azure NetApp Files

B. NetApp Cloud Volumes ONTAP

C. Azure Blob Destination

D. NetApp Cloud Volumes Service

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-netapp-files/whats-new


Question 10:

You are asked to create and manage working environments in NetApp Cloud Manager. In this scenario, which user role would enable you to perform this assignment?

A. Cluster Admin

B. Compliance Viewer

C. Storage Admin

D. Account Admin

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/us-en/occm38/pdfs/sidebar/Get_started_with_Cloud_Manager.pdf (page 6)


Question 11:

Which cloud architecture model does Cloud Volumes Service have?

A. PaaS

B. DRaaS

C. SaaS

D. IaaS

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Which two protocols are supported with an E-Series system? (Choose two.)

A. iSCSI

B. NFS

C. FC

D. SMB

Correct Answer: AC


Question 13:

Your employer asks you to deploy a solution in the cloud for sharing files company-wide. Employees require optimal performance and transparent data access to a single set of data.

In this scenario, which NetApp technology should you deploy?

A. Global File Cache

B. ONTAP Select

C. StorageGRID

D. Cloud Sync service

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://cloud.netapp.com/global-file-cache


Question 14:

Which are three focus areas of NetApp E-Series solutions? (Choose three.)

A. video surveillance

B. backup

C. big data analytics

D. virtual desktop infrastructure

E. file shares using SMB

Correct Answer: ABC

Reference: https://www.netapp.com/data-storage/e-series/


Question 15:

Which two technologies are involved during a takeover event on an ONTAP cluster? (Choose two.)

A. Aggregate Relocation (ARL)

B. Advanced Disk Partitioning (ADP)

C. Storage VM (SVM)

D. Storage Failover (SFO)

Correct Answer: BC